Mock Test 3

Q1. Which scientist first described the liquid contagium concept for tobacco mosaic disease, correcting Ivanovsky’s filterable-agent interpretation? HPRCA-pat.

1. Dmitri Ivanovsky
2. Martinus Beijerinck
3. Wendell Stanley
4. Frederick Twort

Answer: B — Martinus Beijerinck

Beijerinck (1898) proposed the concept of contagium vivum fluidum (living contagious fluid) for TMV, distinguishing it from a particulate bacterium; Stanley later crystallised TMV in 1935.

Q3. In Fritsch’s classification of algae, which class is characterised by the presence of fucoxanthin as the principal accessory pigment and laminarin as the storage product? HPRCA-pat.

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Rhodophyceae
3. Phaeophyceae
4. Xanthophyceae

Answer: C — Phaeophyceae

Brown algae (Phaeophyceae) contain fucoxanthin (giving the brown colour), store laminarin and mannitol, and include economically important genera like Laminaria and Fucus.

Q5. Guchchi (Morchella esculenta), prized in Himachal Pradesh cuisine, belongs to which fungal division? HP-spec.

1. Basidiomycota
2. Zygomycota
3. Ascomycota
4. Deuteromycota

Answer: C — Ascomycota

Morchella (morel mushroom) is a sac fungus (Ascomycota) producing spores in asci; it is locally called guchchi in Himachal Pradesh and commands very high market value.

Q6. Bentham & Hooker placed dicotyledons before monocotyledons and used which criteria as the primary basis for grouping families into their series? HPRCA-pat.

1. Number of floral whorls
2. Fusion and number of petals (polypetalous, gamopetalous, apetalous)
3. Type of placentation
4. Presence of stipules

Answer: B — Fusion and number of petals

Bentham & Hooker’s Genera Plantarum (1862–83) divided Dicotyledoneae into Polypetalae, Gamopetalae and Monochlamydeae primarily on corolla fusion, making petal fusion the primary grouping criterion.

Q7. Which feature correctly distinguishes Fabaceae (Papilionaceae) from Caesalpiniaceae within the broad legume group? HPRCA-pat.

1. Fabaceae has actinomorphic flowers; Caesalpiniaceae has zygomorphic flowers
2. Fabaceae has papilionaceous corolla with diadelphous stamens; Caesalpiniaceae has irregular corolla with free stamens
3. Fabaceae always has compound leaves; Caesalpiniaceae always has simple leaves
4. Fabaceae fruit is always a lomentum; Caesalpiniaceae fruit is a legume

Answer: B — Papilionaceous corolla with diadelphous stamens vs irregular corolla with free stamens

The hallmark of Fabaceae is the butterfly-shaped (papilionaceous) corolla with stamens in a 9+1 diadelphous arrangement; Caesalpiniaceae has slightly irregular but not truly papilionaceous flowers and free (polyadelphous or free) stamens.

Q9. The edible part of Litchi chinensis (litchi) is derived from which floral/seed structure? HPRCA-pat.

1. Mesocarp
2. Endocarp
3. Aril
4. Fleshy thalamus

Answer: C — Aril

In litchi, the sweet, juicy, edible portion is an aril — an outgrowth from the funiculus/hilum region of the seed, not part of the pericarp proper.

Q10. Chilgoza (Pinus gerardiana), commercially important in the Kinnaur and Lahaul-Spiti districts of Himachal Pradesh, belongs to which gymnosperm family? HP-spec.

1. Cupressaceae
2. Taxaceae
3. Pinaceae
4. Podocarpaceae

Answer: C — Pinaceae

Pinus gerardiana (chilgoza pine) belongs to family Pinaceae; it produces edible seeds (chilgoza nuts) harvested in the trans-Himalayan valleys of HP and is crucial to tribal livelihoods there.

Q11. Which plant yields the spice saffron, and from which part of the flower is it obtained? HPRCA-pat.

1. Crocus sativus — dried petals
2. Crocus sativus — dried stigmas
3. Curcuma longa — dried rhizome
4. Vanilla planifolia — dried seed pod

Answer: B — Crocus sativus, dried stigmas

Saffron consists of the dried stigmas (and upper style) of Crocus sativus (Iridaceae); the colouring compound is crocin and the flavour compound is safranal. Each flower yields only 3 stigmas, making it the world’s costliest spice.

Q12. Natural rubber is a polyterpene of which monomer unit, and from which plant is it commercially extracted? HPRCA-pat.

1. Isoprene; Hevea brasiliensis
2. Isoprene; Ficus elastica
3. Butadiene; Hevea brasiliensis
4. Styrene; Castilla elastica

Answer: A — Isoprene; Hevea brasiliensis

Natural rubber (cis-polyisoprene) is a polymer of isoprene (2-methylbuta-1,3-diene); it is commercially tapped as latex from Hevea brasiliensis (Euphorbiaceae), native to the Amazon basin.

Q14. Hemp fibre (Cannabis sativa) is extracted from which part of the plant? HPRCA-pat.

1. Leaf epidermis
2. Bast (phloem) fibres of the stem
3. Seed coat (testa)
4. Xylem fibres of the stem

Answer: B — Bast (phloem) fibres of the stem

Hemp fibre consists of long bast (phloem sclerenchyma) fibres from the stem of Cannabis sativa; retting separates these fibres from the woody core (hurds). Jute (Corchorus) and flax (Linum) are also bast fibres.

Q15. Which of the following is the correct botanical source of the drug colchicine, used to induce polyploidy in plant breeding? HPRCA-pat.

1. Papaver somniferum
2. Colchicum autumnale
3. Atropa belladonna
4. Digitalis purpurea

Answer: B — Colchicum autumnale

Colchicine is an alkaloid from Colchicum autumnale (autumn crocus, Colchicaceae); it inhibits spindle formation by binding β-tubulin, preventing chromosome separation and thereby inducing polyploidy.

Q16. The Himalayan yew (Taxus baccata / T. wallichiana), found in Himachal Pradesh forests, is a source of which anti-cancer compound? HP-spec.

1. Vincristine
2. Colchicine
3. Taxol (paclitaxel)
4. Camptothecin

Answer: C — Taxol (paclitaxel)

Taxol (paclitaxel) was isolated from the Pacific yew bark and subsequently found in Himalayan yew (Taxus wallichiana); it stabilises microtubules and is used against ovarian and breast cancers. Over-harvesting has made this HP species endangered.

Q17. Which zone of the root apex is responsible for active cell division, and roughly how many cell layers thick is it in most angiosperms? HPRCA-pat.

1. Zone of elongation; 5–10 layers
2. Meristematic zone; 2–3 mm, many layers
3. Zone of maturation; 1–2 mm, few layers
4. Root cap; single cell layer

Answer: B — Meristematic zone; 2–3 mm, many layers

The meristematic or cell-division zone, protected by the root cap, occupies roughly 1–3 mm behind the cap and consists of actively dividing, densely cytoplasmic cells; elongation and maturation zones follow apically.

Q18. Casparian strips in the root endodermis are composed mainly of which substance, and what is their functional significance? HPRCA-pat.

1. Cellulose; prevent pathogen entry
2. Suberin; force water and solutes through the symplast, enabling selective ion uptake
3. Lignin; provide mechanical support to the endodermis
4. Cutin; reduce water loss from the root cortex

Answer: B — Suberin; force water and solutes through the symplast

Casparian strips are impregnated with suberin (and lignin) on radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells; they block apoplastic water movement, forcing ions into the symplast where selective uptake occurs before reaching the xylem.

Q20. In a transverse section of a monocot stem (e.g., maize), the vascular bundles are described as collateral closed. “Closed” means: HPRCA-pat.

1. Xylem is enclosed by phloem on all sides
2. No vascular cambium is present between xylem and phloem
3. The bundle sheath is completely sclerenchymatous
4. Sieve tubes are absent

Answer: B — No vascular cambium between xylem and phloem

“Closed” vascular bundles lack cambium, so no secondary growth is possible; this is characteristic of monocots. “Open” bundles (dicots) retain cambium between xylem and phloem, enabling secondary thickening.

Q21. Stomata of the dumbbell-shaped guard cell type are characteristic of which plant group? HPRCA-pat.

1. Dicotyledons
2. Gymnosperms
3. Grasses (Poaceae / monocots)
4. Ferns

Answer: C — Grasses (Poaceae / monocots)

Dumbbell- (or drum-) shaped guard cells with thickened ends are typical of grasses; most dicots have kidney-shaped guard cells. The dumbbell form allows rapid opening/closing with minimal guard-cell volume change.

Q22. Identify the INCORRECT statement about lenticels: HPRCA-pat.

1. They are pores in the bark through which gaseous exchange occurs
2. They are formed by the phellogen producing loosely packed complementary cells
3. They are present on stems and roots with secondary growth
4. They function like stomata and close completely at night to prevent water loss

Answer: D — Lenticels do not close at night

Unlike stomata, lenticels remain permanently open (they have no guard cells) and allow continuous gaseous exchange; they are found on the periderm of stems and roots with secondary growth and consist of loosely packed complementary cells produced by the phellogen.

Q23. A student observes a leaf T.S. with mesophyll differentiated into an adaxial palisade layer and an abaxial spongy layer with large intercellular spaces. This leaf is termed: HPRCA-pat.

1. Isobilateral
2. Centric
3. Dorsiventral (bifacial)
4. Equifacial

Answer: C — Dorsiventral (bifacial)

Dorsiventral leaves have differentiated mesophyll with palisade on the adaxial (upper) surface and spongy on the abaxial (lower) surface; typical of most dicots. Isobilateral leaves (monocots like Allium) have palisade on both sides.

Q24. Which photosynthetic pigment absorbs blue-violet (430 nm) and red (680 nm) light most strongly and is directly involved in the primary photochemical reaction? HPRCA-pat.

1. Chlorophyll b
2. Chlorophyll a
3. Beta-carotene
4. Phycoerythrin

Answer: B — Chlorophyll a

Chlorophyll a (absorption peaks ~430 nm and ~680 nm) is the primary reaction-centre pigment in both PS I (P700) and PS II (P680); all other pigments are accessory and funnel excitation energy to Chl a.

Q26. Bolting in long-day plants can be induced experimentally by applying which phytohormone in short-day conditions? HPRCA-pat.

1. Abscisic acid
2. Cytokinin
3. Gibberellin
4. Ethylene

Answer: C — Gibberellin

Gibberellins promote internode elongation (bolting) and can substitute for the long-day requirement in rosette long-day plants like Arabidopsis and spinach; this is a classic experiment demonstrating GA’s role in stem elongation prior to flowering.

Q28. Which term describes the movement of organic solutes (primarily sucrose) in the phloem according to the pressure-flow (mass-flow) hypothesis? HPRCA-pat.

1. Apoplastic transport
2. Transpiration stream
3. Translocation
4. Diffusion gradient movement

Answer: C — Translocation

Phloem transport of photosynthates is called translocation; the Munch pressure-flow hypothesis explains it as bulk flow from high-osmotic source (leaves) to low-osmotic sink (roots, growing tips) driven by a turgor-pressure gradient in sieve tubes.

Q29. Which of the following is the immediate electron donor to Photosystem II (P680), replenishing the oxidised reaction centre after charge separation? HPRCA-pat.

1. Plastocyanin
2. Ferredoxin
3. Water (via the oxygen-evolving complex)
4. NADPH

Answer: C — Water (via the oxygen-evolving complex)

The Mn-containing oxygen-evolving complex (OEC) oxidises two water molecules to yield 4H+, 4e− and O2; electrons flow to P680+ restoring the reaction centre. This is the basis of oxygenic photosynthesis and the origin of atmospheric O2.

Q30. Seed dormancy maintained by abscisic acid (ABA) is broken naturally by which environmental cue and corresponding hormonal change? HPRCA-pat.

1. High temperature; increase in ethylene
2. Cold stratification / after-ripening; decline in ABA and rise in GA
3. Darkness; increase in cytokinin
4. High CO2; decrease in auxin

Answer: B — Cold stratification; decline in ABA and rise in GA

Cold stratification (moist chilling) triggers catabolism of ABA and accumulation of GAs; the ABA:GA ratio shifts in favour of GA, allowing embryo growth, α-amylase synthesis and mobilisation of seed reserves, breaking dormancy.

Q31. Which phylum is characterised by a true coelom formed by schizocoely, bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation and a closed circulatory system? HPRCA-pat.

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Nematoda
3. Annelida
4. Echinodermata

Answer: C — Annelida

Annelids (earthworms, leeches, polychaetes) combine schizocoelous true coelom, metameric segmentation (repeated body units) and a closed circulatory system; Echinodermata has enterocoelous coelom and radial symmetry in adults.

Q33. The water-vascular system of Echinodermata is modified from which embryonic germ-layer cavity? HPRCA-pat.

1. Blastocoel
2. Archenteron-derived enterocoelom
3. Schizocoelom
4. Pseudocoel

Answer: B — Archenteron-derived enterocoelom

Echinoderms are deuterostomes; their coelom forms by enterocoelomic pouching of the archenteron (mesoderm outpocketing from gut wall). The water-vascular system (hydrocoel) is a specialised portion of the left mesocoel.

Q34. In Porifera, the cell type responsible for generating water current and capturing food particles by intracellular digestion is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Pinacocyte
2. Archaeocyte (amoebocyte)
3. Choanocyte (collar cell)
4. Scleroblast

Answer: C — Choanocyte (collar cell)

Choanocytes line the spongocoel / flagellated chambers; their beating flagella create water currents and the collar (of microvilli) traps food by phagocytosis; digestion is intracellular. Archaeocytes distribute nutrients and can differentiate into other cell types.

Q35. Wuchereria bancrofti, causative agent of filariasis (elephantiasis), is transmitted by which vector? HPRCA-pat.

1. Anopheles mosquito
2. Culex mosquito
3. Aedes mosquito
4. Sand fly (Phlebotomus)

Answer: B — Culex mosquito

Wuchereria bancrofti (Nematoda) is transmitted by Culex quinquefasciatus (night-biting mosquito); microfilariae in blood are ingested, develop in the mosquito, and infective larvae are deposited on human skin during a subsequent bite.

Q37. Snow leopard (Panthera uncia), the state animal of Himachal Pradesh, belongs to which family and is classified as: HP-spec.

1. Canidae; Vulnerable
2. Felidae; Vulnerable
3. Felidae; Critically Endangered
4. Ursidae; Endangered

Answer: B — Felidae; Vulnerable

The snow leopard is the state animal of Himachal Pradesh; it belongs to family Felidae and is currently listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List (downlisted from Endangered in 2017); its range spans high-altitude Himalayan terrain including the Spiti Valley.

Q38. The gill slits of Amphioxus (Branchiostoma) are functionally analogous to which respiratory structure in higher vertebrates? HPRCA-pat.

1. Lungs
2. Spiracles
3. Pharyngeal gill slits of primitive fishes
4. Trachea

Answer: C — Pharyngeal gill slits of primitive fishes

Branchiostoma (Amphioxus) is the cephalochordate model organism; its pharyngeal gill slits (atrial chamber) are homologous and functionally analogous to the gill slits of fishes, both serving for filter feeding and gas exchange in the ancestral condition.

Q39. Comparative embryology shows that all vertebrate embryos briefly develop pharyngeal pouches. This is best interpreted as evidence for: HPRCA-pat.

1. Convergent evolution
2. Common ancestry (homology)
3. Analogous structures arising independently
4. Vestigial organ formation

Answer: B — Common ancestry (homology)

Von Baer’s law and Haeckel’s (modified) recapitulation both argue that shared early embryonic features like pharyngeal pouches reflect descent from a common ancestor in which these were functional structures — a core argument from comparative embryology for homology.

Q40. Which organ is considered a vestigial structure in humans, representing a relic of a herbivorous ancestor? HPRCA-pat.

1. Spleen
2. Thymus
3. Caecum / appendix vermiformis
4. Gall bladder

Answer: C — Caecum / appendix vermiformis

The human vermiform appendix is a vestigial remnant of the large caecum used in cellulose fermentation by herbivorous ancestors; Darwin cited it as a classic example of vestigial evolution. The caecum of herbivores (e.g., rabbit) is proportionally enormous.

Q43. The bicarbonate ion (HCO3−) transport in RBCs is facilitated by which membrane protein, and what is the coupled counter-transport ion? HPRCA-pat.

1. Aquaporin; Na+
2. Band 3 protein (AE1 anion exchanger); Cl−
3. CFTR; Na+
4. Spectrin; K+

Answer: B — Band 3 protein; Cl−

The chloride-bicarbonate exchanger (Band 3 / AE1) in RBC membranes allows HCO3− produced in the cytoplasm to exit into plasma while Cl− enters (chloride shift / Hamburger shift), maintaining electrical neutrality and maximising CO2 transport capacity.

Q44. In a secondary immune response, rapid and heightened antibody production is due to the proliferation of: HPRCA-pat.

1. Naive B cells stimulated by the antigen for the first time
2. Long-lived memory B cells that were generated during the primary response
3. NK (natural killer) cells activated by cytokines
4. Mast cells releasing IgE

Answer: B — Long-lived memory B cells

On re-exposure to an antigen, memory B cells (generated during the primary response) are rapidly activated, proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells producing high-affinity IgG; this explains the faster, stronger and more sustained secondary (anamnestic) response.

Q45. The Frank–Starling law of the heart states that: HPRCA-pat.

1. Heart rate is inversely proportional to stroke volume
2. The force of myocardial contraction increases as ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) increases, within physiological limits
3. Cardiac output equals heart rate divided by stroke volume
4. Contractility decreases as blood pressure rises

Answer: B — Contractile force increases with end-diastolic volume

The Frank–Starling mechanism: increased ventricular filling stretches myocardial sarcomeres to a more optimal actin-myosin overlap, enhancing cross-bridge cycling and thus stroke volume; this intrinsically matches cardiac output to venous return.

Q46. Anaphylaxis is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by: HPRCA-pat.

1. IgM and complement activation
2. IgE bound to mast cells and basophils, releasing histamine and other mediators
3. Cytotoxic T cells attacking haptenated cells
4. Immune complex deposition in blood vessel walls

Answer: B — IgE on mast cells releasing histamine

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity: allergen cross-links IgE molecules pre-bound to FcεRI receptors on mast cells; degranulation releases histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins, causing bronchoconstriction, vasodilation and anaphylaxis.

Q49. The instrument used to measure lung compliance and forced vital capacity in a clinical setting is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Sphygmomanometer
2. Spirometer
3. Plethysmograph
4. Oximeter

Answer: B — Spirometer

A spirometer measures lung volumes and capacities (tidal volume, IRV, ERV, VC, FEV1, FVC) by tracking the displacement of air as a subject breathes into and out of a sealed chamber; it is the standard tool for lung function (pulmonary function testing).

Q50. Capacitation of sperm in the female reproductive tract involves: HPRCA-pat.

1. Deposition of acrosomal enzymes on the zona pellucida
2. Removal of cholesterol from the sperm plasma membrane, increasing membrane fluidity and enabling the acrosome reaction
3. Synthesis of new acrosomal proteases in the oviduct
4. Hyperactivation of the flagellum by follicle-stimulating hormone

Answer: B — Cholesterol removal increasing membrane fluidity

Capacitation occurs over 5–7 hours in the female tract; cholesterol efflux from the sperm plasma membrane increases membrane fluidity and hyperpolarisation, priming the sperm for the Ca2+-triggered acrosome reaction upon zona pellucida binding.

Q51. In human development, the blastocyst implants in the uterine endometrium approximately how many days post-fertilisation, and what layer of the blastocyst invades the endometrium? HPRCA-pat.

1. Day 3; inner cell mass
2. Day 6–7; trophoblast
3. Day 14; epiblast
4. Day 21; syncytiotrophoblast only

Answer: B — Day 6–7; trophoblast

The blastocyst sheds the zona pellucida around day 5, then the trophoblast (outer cell layer) invades the decidualized endometrium during days 6–10; the trophoblast differentiates into cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, the latter secreting hCG to maintain the corpus luteum.

Q53. Which of the following contraceptive methods acts primarily by preventing ovulation through suppression of FSH and LH? HPRCA-pat.

1. Copper-T IUD
2. Combined oral contraceptive pill (oestrogen + progestogen)
3. Condom
4. Diaphragm

Answer: B — Combined oral contraceptive pill

Combined OCPs provide exogenous oestrogen and progestogen that suppress GnRH pulsatility → suppression of FSH/LH surge → no ovulation; they also thicken cervical mucus and thin the endometrium as secondary mechanisms.

Q54. Sericulture involves the rearing of silkworms to obtain silk fibre. The silk fibre is produced by larvae of which species and consists of which protein? HPRCA-pat.

1. Bombyx mori; keratin
2. Bombyx mori; fibroin (with sericin coating)
3. Antheraea paphia; collagen
4. Bombyx mori; elastin

Answer: B — Bombyx mori; fibroin (with sericin coating)

The mulberry silkworm Bombyx mori spins a cocoon of silk, which is predominantly fibroin (structural protein) coated with sericin (gum-like protein); degumming removes sericin to release the lustrous fibroin thread used in textiles.

Q55. In apiculture, the role of the queen bee substance (9-ODA, trans-9-oxo-2-decenoic acid) is to: HPRCA-pat.

1. Attract drones for mating and suppress worker ovary development
2. Stimulate foraging behaviour in worker bees
3. Signal the presence of an enemy near the hive
4. Regulate temperature of the brood nest

Answer: A — Attract drones and suppress worker ovaries

Queen mandibular pheromone (QMP), primarily 9-ODA, attracts drones during mating flights and chemically inhibits ovarian development in worker bees, maintaining the queen’s reproductive monopoly and social cohesion of the colony.

Q56. Integrated Pest Management (IPM) prioritises which approach as the first line of pest control before resorting to chemical pesticides? HPRCA-pat.

1. Broad-spectrum chemical pesticide application
2. Cultural, biological and mechanical control methods
3. Fumigation of the entire crop
4. Genetic engineering of pest species

Answer: B — Cultural, biological and mechanical control

IPM emphasises ecosystem-based strategies: crop rotation, resistant varieties, natural predators/parasitoids, traps and targeted biological controls; chemical pesticides are used only as a last resort and at minimum effective doses to reduce environmental impact.

Q57. Which disease of honeybees is caused by a microsporidian parasite Nosema apis, leading to dysentery and colony collapse? HPRCA-pat.

1. American Foulbrood
2. Nosemosis (Nosema disease)
3. Varroosis
4. Sacbrood

Answer: B — Nosemosis

Nosema apis (Microsporidia) infects the midgut epithelium of adult bees, causing dysentery, reduced lifespan and colony weakening; it is transmitted via contaminated food or water. Varroosis is caused by the mite Varroa destructor, not a microsporidian.

Q58. The ELISA test is based on which principle to detect the presence of an antigen or antibody? HPRCA-pat.

1. Radioactive labelling of antibodies (radioimmunoassay)
2. Enzyme-linked antibody generating a colorimetric or fluorescent signal proportional to the target concentration
3. Agglutination of red blood cells
4. Western blot electrophoresis of serum proteins

Answer: B — Enzyme-linked antibody generating colorimetric signal

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay) uses a primary antibody to capture the target antigen, followed by an enzyme-conjugated secondary antibody; the enzyme (e.g., HRP or AP) converts a substrate to a coloured product quantifiable by spectrophotometry.

Q59. A patient’s blood group is O− (O Rh-negative). As a universal donor for red blood cells, their blood can be given because: HPRCA-pat.

1. Type O blood has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies that neutralise recipient antibodies
2. Type O RBCs lack A and B antigens on the surface and lack the D (Rh) antigen, so no ABO or Rh incompatibility occurs
3. Type O blood has the highest concentration of universal compatible proteins
4. Rh-negative blood activates the recipient’s immune tolerance

Answer: B — O RBCs lack A, B and Rh antigens

O Rh-negative RBCs carry neither A nor B antigens (no target for recipient anti-A/B antibodies) and no Rh D antigen (no target for anti-D); they can thus be transfused to any ABO/Rh recipient without agglutination — hence “universal donor” status for packed RBCs.

Q60. CT scan (computed tomography) uses which type of radiation, and its key advantage over a plain X-ray is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Gamma rays; real-time imaging of soft tissue
2. X-rays; cross-sectional images distinguishing soft tissue density differences not visible on plain X-ray
3. Ultrasound; no ionising radiation and 3-D images
4. MRI; faster imaging with radiation

Answer: B — X-rays; cross-sectional images with better soft-tissue contrast

CT uses rotating X-ray beams and detectors to compute cross-sectional images (Hounsfield units); it differentiates tissues of similar density (brain, blood, CSF) far better than conventional radiographs, enabling diagnosis of tumours, haematomas and organ abnormalities.

Q61. Which protein forms the main structural scaffold of the nuclear lamina, providing mechanical support to the inner nuclear membrane and anchoring chromatin? HPRCA-pat.

1. Spectrin
2. Vimentin
3. Lamin (A/B/C)
4. Keratin

Answer: C — Lamin (A/B/C)

The nuclear lamina is a meshwork of type-V intermediate filament proteins called lamins; lamin A/C mutations cause laminopathies (e.g., progeria, Emery–Dreifuss muscular dystrophy). The lamina reversibly depolymerises during mitosis when CDK1 phosphorylates lamins.

Q63. The signal recognition particle (SRP) is responsible for directing ribosomes to the rough ER during translation of proteins destined for secretion. What is the SRP’s signal? HPRCA-pat.

1. The poly-A tail of the mRNA
2. An N-terminal hydrophobic signal sequence on the nascent polypeptide
3. The 5′ cap on the mRNA
4. A glycan modification added post-translationally

Answer: B — N-terminal hydrophobic signal sequence

As the ribosome synthesises the first ~20 hydrophobic amino acids of a secretory protein, SRP binds the signal sequence and the ribosome, pausing translation; SRP then docks with the SRP receptor on the ER membrane, allowing co-translational insertion into the ER lumen.

Q64. Which phase of meiosis is characterised by the crossing over of non-sister chromatids at chiasmata, occurring after synapsis is complete? HPRCA-pat.

1. Leptotene
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Diakinesis

Answer: B — Pachytene

Crossing over (recombination) occurs during pachytene when the synaptonemal complex is fully formed; the recombination nodules catalyse strand exchange. Chiasmata become visible in diplotene when the SC desynapses but homologues remain held at crossover points.

Q67. The G2 checkpoint in the cell cycle ensures which of the following before allowing entry into mitosis? HPRCA-pat.

1. The cell has reached a minimum mass
2. DNA has been fully and accurately replicated and any replication errors have been repaired
3. All chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle
4. Growth factors are present in the extracellular environment

Answer: B — DNA fully replicated and errors repaired

The G2/M checkpoint is controlled by CDK1/cyclin B (MPF); ATM/ATR kinases sense unreplicated or damaged DNA and activate CHK1/CHK2, which degrade Cdc25C phosphatase, preventing CDK1 activation and entry into mitosis until DNA integrity is confirmed.

Q68. In a dihybrid cross AaBb × AaBb, the probability of obtaining an offspring with genotype AAbb is: HPRCA-pat.

1. 1/4
2. 1/8
3. 1/16
4. 3/16

Answer: C — 1/16

P(AA) = 1/4 (from Aa × Aa); P(bb) = 1/4 (from Bb × Bb); combined probability = 1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16 (assuming independent assortment).

Q69. Which molecular phenomenon explains why a single base substitution in the codon CAA (Gln) → CAG still produces glutamine, and what is this termed? HPRCA-pat.

1. Nonsense mutation; amber codon suppression
2. Frameshift; codon wobble
3. Synonymous (silent) mutation; degeneracy of the genetic code
4. Missense mutation; codon wobble

Answer: C — Synonymous mutation; degeneracy of the genetic code

Both CAA and CAG encode glutamine; changing the third codon position without altering the amino acid is a synonymous (silent) substitution explained by the degeneracy (redundancy) of the genetic code — multiple codons specify the same amino acid, particularly at the wobble (third) position.

Q70. Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium predicts that allele frequencies remain constant provided which set of conditions is met? HPRCA-pat.

1. Random mutation, gene flow, large population, no selection
2. No mutation, no migration, large population, random mating, no natural selection
3. Directional selection only, large population, no genetic drift
4. Assortative mating, no migration, large population

Answer: B — No mutation, no migration, large population, random mating, no selection

The five conditions for H-W equilibrium are: no mutation, no gene flow, infinitely large population (no genetic drift), random mating (panmixia) and no natural selection. Violation of any one causes allele frequencies to change, i.e., evolution occurs.

Q73. Darwinian fitness in evolutionary biology is defined as: HPRCA-pat.

1. Physical strength and endurance of an organism
2. Relative reproductive success (contribution of an individual’s alleles to the next generation)
3. Longevity of an organism within its population
4. Ability to survive extreme environmental conditions

Answer: B — Relative reproductive success

Fitness (W) measures the proportionate contribution of a genotype to future generations relative to other genotypes; it incorporates both survival (viability selection) and reproduction (fertility selection). An organism that survives but leaves no offspring has W = 0.

Q74. Which type of chromosomal mutation results in a segment of a chromosome being present in reverse orientation relative to the normal arrangement? HPRCA-pat.

1. Deletion
2. Duplication
3. Inversion
4. Translocation

Answer: C — Inversion

An inversion occurs when a chromosome segment is excised, flipped 180° and reinserted; if the centromere is included it is pericentric; if not, paracentric. Inversions suppress recombination in heterozygotes, acting as crossover suppressors in natural populations.

Q75. Anagenesis differs from cladogenesis in that: HPRCA-pat.

1. Anagenesis involves splitting of a lineage into two or more daughter species
2. Anagenesis is the gradual transformation of one species into another without lineage splitting, while cladogenesis involves branching speciation
3. Anagenesis always requires geographic isolation
4. Anagenesis increases species diversity more than cladogenesis

Answer: B — Anagenesis transforms one species; cladogenesis branches

Anagenesis (phyletic evolution) is linear transformation of an entire population over time (one species replaces another); cladogenesis is branching — a lineage splits, increasing species diversity. Most of the speciation events visible in the fossil record involve cladogenesis.

Q76. The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognises the palindromic sequence 5′-GAATTC-3′ and cuts between G and A, leaving: HPRCA-pat.

1. Blunt ends
2. 5′ overhangs (sticky ends: 5′-AATT-3′)
3. 3′ overhangs
4. Nick without complete double-strand cleavage

Answer: B — 5′ overhangs (AATT sticky ends)

EcoRI cuts between G and A on both strands, generating 5′ protruding overhangs (5′-AATT-3′); these “sticky ends” are complementary on both fragments, facilitating ligation with any other fragment cut by EcoRI. Sticky ends increase recombinant DNA efficiency.

Q77. In PCR, what is the purpose of the denaturation step (95°C), and at what step does the thermostable polymerase synthesise new DNA? HPRCA-pat.

1. Denaturation anneals primers; polymerase extends during annealing
2. Denaturation separates double-stranded DNA template; polymerase extends during the extension step (72°C)
3. Denaturation activates Taq polymerase; extension occurs at 55°C
4. Denaturation removes RNA primers; polymerase replaces them during the annealing step

Answer: B — Denaturation separates strands; extension at 72°C

PCR cycle: (i) 95°C denatures the double-stranded template; (ii) 50–65°C anneals primers to each single strand; (iii) 72°C (Taq optimum) allows extension: Taq polymerase adds dNTPs in 5′→3′ direction from the 3′ end of each primer.

Q78. The first genetically engineered crop approved for commercial cultivation in India was Bt cotton. The Bt gene encodes: HPRCA-pat.

1. A herbicide-resistance enzyme (CP4 EPSPS)
2. Cry protein (δ-endotoxin) toxic to lepidopteran / bollworm larvae
3. A protease inhibitor preventing insect gut digestion
4. A viral coat protein conferring disease resistance

Answer: B — Cry protein (δ-endotoxin)

The cry genes from Bacillus thuringiensis encode crystal (Cry / δ-endotoxin) proteins; in insect midguts (alkaline pH), the protoxin is cleaved to form pores in midgut epithelial cells, causing osmotic lysis and death of bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera) larvae.

Q79. CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing uses which molecular component to direct the Cas9 nuclease to a specific genomic target? HPRCA-pat.

1. A restriction enzyme recognition sequence
2. A single guide RNA (sgRNA) complementary to the target DNA sequence
3. A site-specific recombinase (Cre-lox)
4. A zinc-finger protein domain

Answer: B — Single guide RNA (sgRNA)

The sgRNA (~100 nt) contains a 20-nt spacer sequence complementary to the target DNA and a scaffold that binds Cas9; RNA-DNA base pairing directs Cas9 to the target, where it cleaves both strands immediately 5′ of the PAM sequence (5′-NGG-3′ for S. pyogenes Cas9).

Q81. Which type of chemical bond is primarily responsible for maintaining the α-helix secondary structure of proteins? HPRCA-pat.

1. Disulfide bonds between cysteine residues
2. Hydrogen bonds between the backbone N–H of one residue and the C=O of a residue four positions earlier
3. Ionic bonds between charged side chains
4. Hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar side chains

Answer: B — Hydrogen bonds between backbone N–H and C=O

The α-helix is stabilised by intrachain hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl oxygen (C=O) of residue n and the amide hydrogen (N–H) of residue n+4; this gives a regular right-handed helix with 3.6 residues per turn and a pitch of 0.54 nm.

Q82. The Km of an enzyme represents: HPRCA-pat.

1. The maximum reaction velocity at infinite substrate
2. The substrate concentration at which the reaction velocity is exactly half of Vmax
3. The equilibrium constant of the enzyme-substrate complex
4. The rate constant for product release

Answer: B — [S] at which V = Vmax/2

Km (Michaelis constant) is defined by the Michaelis-Menten equation as the substrate concentration giving half-maximal velocity; a low Km indicates high affinity (enzyme is half-saturated at low [S]); Km is an intrinsic property of the enzyme-substrate pair at given conditions.

Q83. Which metabolic pathway converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, releasing CO2 and NADH, and where does it occur in eukaryotic cells? HPRCA-pat.

1. Glycolysis; cytoplasm
2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex reaction; mitochondrial matrix
3. Beta-oxidation; peroxisomes
4. Pentose phosphate pathway; cytoplasm

Answer: B — Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex; mitochondrial matrix

The pyruvate dehydrogenase multienzyme complex (PDC) in the mitochondrial matrix catalyses oxidative decarboxylation: pyruvate + CoA + NAD+ → acetyl-CoA + CO2 + NADH; it requires thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), lipoate, FAD, CoA and NAD+ as cofactors.

Q85. Feedback inhibition of the first enzyme in a biosynthetic pathway by the pathway’s end product is an example of: HPRCA-pat.

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Allosteric (non-competitive) regulation
3. Covalent modification
4. Zymogen activation

Answer: B — Allosteric (non-competitive) regulation

End-product inhibition (feedback inhibition) is allosteric: the final product binds an allosteric site on the first enzyme, causing conformational change that reduces catalytic activity without competing with the substrate at the active site — a classic example is threonine deaminase inhibited by isoleucine.

Q87. The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) in Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is primarily established to protect: HP-spec.

1. Tropical rainforest biodiversity
2. Western Himalayan alpine and sub-alpine ecosystems, including snow leopard and musk deer
3. Desert-adapted fauna of the Spiti Valley
4. Mangrove ecosystems along the HP riverbanks

Answer: B — Western Himalayan alpine/sub-alpine ecosystems

GHNP (754 km²) in Kullu district protects Himalayan biodiversity including snow leopard, western tragopan, musk deer and Himalayan brown bear; it was inscribed as a UNESCO WHS in 2014 for its outstanding universal value as a biodiversity hotspot.

Q88. The intermediate disturbance hypothesis (IDH) predicts that species diversity is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Highest at very low disturbance because stable communities accumulate the most species
2. Highest at very high disturbance because competitive exclusion is prevented
3. Highest at intermediate levels of disturbance because a mixture of early and late successional species coexist
4. Independent of disturbance frequency

Answer: C — Highest at intermediate disturbance

IDH (Connell, 1978): low disturbance allows competitive dominants to exclude other species; high disturbance eliminates sensitive species; intermediate disturbance creates gaps and prevents competitive exclusion, allowing both pioneer and late-successional species to coexist — maximising diversity.

Q89. Phosphorus cycling differs fundamentally from carbon and nitrogen cycling because: HPRCA-pat.

1. Phosphorus has no gaseous phase in its biogeochemical cycle
2. Phosphorus is never absorbed by plant roots
3. Phosphorus undergoes a gaseous cycle via PH3 (phosphine)
4. Phosphorus is fixed from the atmosphere by microorganisms

Answer: A — No gaseous phase in the P cycle

The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle — phosphorus is released by weathering of rocks and returned by sedimentation; there is no atmospheric reservoir (unlike C as CO2/CH4 or N as N2); this makes P often the limiting nutrient in freshwater ecosystems.

Q90. In the logistic growth model, the population growth rate (dN/dt) is maximum when: HPRCA-pat.

1. N = K (carrying capacity)
2. N = K/2 (half of carrying capacity)
3. N is very small (near zero)
4. N exceeds K

Answer: B — N = K/2

The logistic equation dN/dt = rN(1−N/K) is a parabolic function of N with maximum at N = K/2; at this point the product N(K−N) is maximised; this is exploited in fisheries management (maximum sustainable yield harvest at K/2).

Q91. Bloom’s Revised Taxonomy (2001) places “Creating” at the highest cognitive level. Which action verb is BEST aligned with the “Evaluating” level immediately below it? HPRCA-pat.

1. Define
2. Apply
3. Critique / Judge
4. Recall

Answer: C — Critique / Judge

The revised taxonomy (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001) places Evaluating (judging, critiquing, defending) at level 5 and Creating (designing, constructing) at level 6; lower levels are Remember, Understand, Apply, Analyse. Action verbs reveal the cognitive level targeted by an objective.

Q92. Piaget’s “concrete operational stage” spans approximately ages 7–11 years. A key cognitive achievement during this stage relevant to science teaching is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Formal hypothetico-deductive reasoning
2. Conservation of number, mass and volume; reversibility of operations
3. Object permanence
4. Abstract symbolic reasoning without real objects

Answer: B — Conservation and reversibility

During the concrete operational stage, children master conservation tasks (same amount of liquid regardless of container shape) and reversibility (can mentally reverse operations); science teaching at this stage should use concrete manipulatives and real organisms, not purely abstract concepts.

Q93. Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is defined as: HPRCA-pat.

1. The level a learner can achieve independently without any help
2. The gap between what a learner can do alone and what they can achieve with guidance from a more competent peer or teacher
3. The maximum level of cognitive development biologically possible for a given age
4. The range of content a student has already mastered

Answer: B — The gap between independent and guided performance

The ZPD is the distance between the actual developmental level (independent problem-solving) and the potential level (with MKO — more knowledgeable other) guidance; scaffolding (temporary structured support) bridges this gap and is progressively withdrawn as competence grows.

Q95. A formative assessment is BEST described as: HPRCA-pat.

1. An end-of-year examination to rank students and certify achievement
2. Continuous assessment used during instruction to monitor learning and provide feedback that guides teaching and learning
3. A standardised test administered under controlled conditions
4. A portfolio of completed projects evaluated after instruction ends

Answer: B — Continuous in-process assessment to guide instruction

Formative assessment (Black & Wiliam, 1998) occurs during teaching and provides information to both teacher and student to adjust instruction; it includes questioning, exit tickets, concept mapping and peer-review. Summative assessment comes at the end and judges achievement.

Q96. The “5E Instructional Model” commonly used in science education stands for which five phases in sequence? HPRCA-pat.

1. Explore, Explain, Expand, Evaluate, Engage
2. Engage, Explore, Explain, Elaborate, Evaluate
3. Explain, Engage, Evaluate, Explore, Elaborate
4. Evaluate, Engage, Explain, Explore, Extend

Answer: B — Engage, Explore, Explain, Elaborate, Evaluate

The 5E model (Bybee, 1989) follows: Engage (arouse curiosity, activate prior knowledge) → Explore (hands-on activity) → Explain (teacher introduces concepts and vocabulary) → Elaborate (apply in new contexts) → Evaluate (assess understanding); it is widely used in constructivist science teaching.

Q97. Which NCF-2005 recommendation most directly influenced biology laboratory teaching at secondary level in India? HPRCA-pat.

1. Replace laboratory work with multimedia simulations entirely
2. Shift from textbook-driven to activity-based, process-oriented learning with emphasis on investigation and observation
3. Reduce science periods to prioritise language arts
4. Standardise all practicals to a national single-format written rubric

Answer: B — Shift to activity-based, process-oriented learning

NCF-2005 emphasised “learning without burden” and recommended shifting from content transmission to child-centred, activity-based approaches; for science it specifically recommended observation-based, hands-on laboratory work and connecting science to everyday life and local environment.

Q98. A teacher uses a concept map to assess students’ understanding of photosynthesis. Concept mapping best assesses which type of knowledge according to Anderson & Krathwohl’s knowledge dimension? HPRCA-pat.

1. Factual knowledge
2. Procedural knowledge
3. Conceptual knowledge (relationships and schemas)
4. Metacognitive knowledge

Answer: C — Conceptual knowledge

Concept maps externalise relational knowledge — how concepts are interconnected (schemas, categories, principles); this corresponds to the conceptual knowledge dimension in the revised Bloom’s framework. They reveal misconceptions and gaps in conceptual understanding better than fact-recall tests.

Q99. In Ausubel’s theory, “meaningful learning” occurs when new information is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Memorised verbatim from the textbook
2. Linked to existing relevant knowledge structures (assimilation) through prior subsumers
3. Discovered independently without teacher guidance
4. Tested immediately after presentation to maximise retention

Answer: B — Linked to existing cognitive structures through subsumers

Ausubel’s assimilation theory contrasts meaningful learning (anchoring new concepts to existing cognitive subsumers, allowing understanding) with rote learning (arbitrary memorisation); “advance organisers” are Ausubel’s tool to activate relevant prior knowledge before new instruction.

Q100. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of “scaffolding” in science instruction? HPRCA-pat.

1. Providing the complete answer so students can check their work
2. Temporary, structured support (hints, worked examples, guiding questions) that is gradually withdrawn as student competence develops
3. Assigning homework to reinforce class learning
4. Grouping students by ability for differentiated instruction permanently

Answer: B — Temporary structured support gradually withdrawn

Scaffolding (Wood, Bruner & Ross, 1976) operationalises Vygotsky’s ZPD; support is calibrated to the learner’s current level and systematically faded (“fading”) as the student internalises the skill; it differs from giving the answer (which bypasses learning).

Q101. Which teaching method is MOST appropriate to introduce the concept of osmosis to Class IX students who are encountering it for the first time? HPRCA-pat.

1. Lecture with board diagrams only
2. A potato osmometer or raisin-water demonstration followed by structured discussion
3. Reading the textbook chapter silently and summarising
4. A peer-teaching assignment where students teach each other immediately

Answer: B — Potato osmometer demonstration followed by discussion

Constructivist pedagogy for a first encounter with osmosis suggests a concrete, observable demonstration (potato/raisin osmometer) that produces cognitive conflict and curiosity; structured discussion then helps students articulate observations and construct the concept from evidence, far more effective than purely verbal introduction.

Q102. The Right to Education Act, 2009 (RTE) mandates free and compulsory education for children in which age group in India? HPRCA-pat.

1. 3–14 years
2. 6–14 years
3. 6–18 years
4. 5–16 years

Answer: B — 6–14 years

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 guarantees education for children aged 6 to 14 years (Class I to VIII); the 86th Constitutional Amendment (Article 21A) provides the fundamental right to education that the Act implements. (NEP 2020 proposes extending to age 3 but the Act covers 6–14.)

Q103. Which model of teaching is MOST suited for developing higher-order thinking and argumentation in senior secondary biology students discussing ethical issues in biotechnology? HPRCA-pat.

1. Direct instruction (explicit teaching)
2. Socratic seminar / discussion-based learning
3. Programmed instruction (B. F. Skinner)
4. Drill and practice

Answer: B — Socratic seminar / discussion-based learning

Socratic questioning and structured discussions develop critical thinking, evidence-based argumentation and perspective-taking; these are essential for evaluating socioscientific issues like GMOs and CRISPR ethics. Direct instruction and drill-and-practice are better for factual mastery.

Q104. Evaluation in education serves two key purposes: certification (summative) and improvement (formative). Which type of evaluation is conducted at the END of an instructional unit to certify achievement? HPRCA-pat.

1. Diagnostic evaluation
2. Formative evaluation
3. Summative evaluation
4. Criterion-referenced evaluation (only)

Answer: C — Summative evaluation

Summative evaluation (Scriven, 1967) measures achievement at the end of a unit, course or programme and serves certification/grading functions; formative is ongoing during instruction; diagnostic evaluation identifies learning difficulties before instruction begins.

Q105. Thorndike’s Law of Effect states that: HPRCA-pat.

1. Learning is strongest when practice is massed together
2. Responses followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to recur; those followed by dissatisfying consequences are less likely to recur
3. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts in perception
4. Higher cognitive functions are located in the prefrontal cortex

Answer: B — Satisfying consequences strengthen stimulus-response bonds

Thorndike’s Law of Effect (1898) laid the foundation for operant conditioning: positive outcomes strengthen S–R connections; negative outcomes weaken them. B. F. Skinner later formalised this into reinforcement schedules. It underpins reward-based classroom management.

Q107. The NCERT biology textbook for Class XI is organised around which thematic framework? HPRCA-pat.

1. Organ-system approach only
2. Diversity of life, structural organisation, cell biology, plant physiology and human physiology
3. Alphabetical listing of organisms and concepts
4. Ecological-only approach from biosphere down to cell

Answer: B — Diversity, structural organisation, cell biology, plant physiology, human physiology

The NCERT Class XI biology textbook covers five broad units: (1) Diversity in Living World, (2) Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals, (3) Cell Structure and Function, (4) Plant Physiology, (5) Human Physiology — reflecting a progression from macroscopic to cellular and physiological levels.

Q108. A teacher planning a lesson on cell division wants to address both cognitive and affective domains. Which learning objective BEST reflects the affective domain? HPRCA-pat.

1. Students will be able to draw and label the stages of mitosis
2. Students will demonstrate an appreciation for the precision and elegance of cellular processes
3. Students will calculate the number of cells after four mitotic divisions
4. Students will identify the differences between meiosis I and II

Answer: B — Appreciation for cellular processes (affective domain)

The affective domain (Krathwohl et al., 1964) addresses attitudes, values and feelings (receiving, responding, valuing, organising, characterising); “appreciating the precision of cellular processes” reflects valuing; the other options involve cognitive recall, calculation and analysis.

Q109. Which of the following rivers originates from the Rohtang Pass area (Kullu district) and flows through the Lahaul-Spiti and Chamba districts before joining the Chenab? HP-spec.

1. Ravi
2. Chenab (Chandra-Bhaga)
3. Beas
4. Sutlej

Answer: B — Chenab (Chandra-Bhaga)

The Chenab is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers at Tandi (Lahaul-Spiti); the Chandra originates from the Baralacha La and Rohtang Pass area. The river flows through Lahaul and then Chamba before entering J&K/Pakistan.

Q110. The Kalka–Shimla Railway, a UNESCO World Heritage route, operates on which gauge and was completed in which year? HP-spec.

1. Broad gauge; 1903
2. Narrow gauge (2′6″); 1903
3. Metre gauge; 1910
4. Narrow gauge; 1898

Answer: B — Narrow gauge (2′6″); 1903

The Kalka–Shimla Railway opened on 9 November 1903; it runs on 2 ft 6 in (762 mm) narrow gauge for 96 km with 102 tunnels and 864 bridges; it was declared a UNESCO WHS in 2008 as part of the Mountain Railways of India.

Q111. Himachal Pradesh was recognised as a full state (18th state of India) on which date? HP-spec.

1. 15 April 1948
2. 26 January 1950
3. 25 January 1971
4. 1 November 1966

Answer: C — 25 January 1971

HP was initially created as a Chief Commissioner’s Province in 1948, became a Part-C state in 1950, was merged with Punjab in 1956 (reorganisation), reconstituted as a Union Territory in 1956, and finally attained full statehood on 25 January 1971 under the HP Act, 1970.

Q112. The Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary, known for its western tragopan (Tragopan melanocephalus) population, is located in which district of Himachal Pradesh? HP-spec.

1. Kullu
2. Chamba
3. Kinnaur
4. Mandi

Answer: B — Chamba

Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary (379 km²) lies in the Bharmour subdivision of Chamba district; it is one of the few protected areas for the western tragopan (state bird of HP), snow leopard and Himalayan brown bear in the inner Himalayan region.

Q113. The “Renuka Ji Fair,” associated with the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh, is held annually in which district? HP-spec.

1. Sirmaur
2. Solan
3. Mandi
4. Shimla

Answer: A — Sirmaur

Renuka Lake in Sirmaur district is the largest natural lake in HP (area ~670 m × 230 m); the annual Renuka Ji fair during Kartik is a major pilgrimage festival at the associated temple of Goddess Renuka. The Parashuram Tal adjacent to it is a pilgrimage site as well.

Q114. Which Himachali folk dance is performed exclusively by women during the monsoon season in the Kullu Valley? HP-spec.

1. Nati
2. Lahauli
3. Jhoori
4. Kayang

Answer: C — Jhoori

Jhoori (also Jhoori nrit) is a traditional women’s folk dance of the Kullu Valley performed during the monsoon; it involves graceful swaying movements in groups. Nati is the most popular general folk dance of HP; Kayang is typical of Kinnaur.

Q115. The Bhakra Dam, one of Asia’s tallest gravity dams, is constructed across which river and is located on the HP–Punjab border? HP-spec.

1. Beas; Pandoh
2. Ravi; Chamba
3. Sutlej; Bilaspur district
4. Yamuna; Paonta Sahib

Answer: C — Sutlej; Bilaspur district

The Bhakra Dam is built on the Sutlej River at the Bhakra gorge in Bilaspur district of HP; it is 226 m high (second-tallest concrete gravity dam in Asia), forms Gobind Sagar reservoir, and the Bhakra–Nangal Project is a landmark in Indian irrigation and hydropower development.

Q116. Pin Valley National Park, the only national park in the cold desert biome of India, is situated in which district of Himachal Pradesh? HP-spec.

1. Kinnaur
2. Lahaul and Spiti
3. Chamba
4. Kullu

Answer: B — Lahaul and Spiti

Pin Valley National Park (675 km²) in the Spiti valley of Lahaul & Spiti district is a high-altitude cold desert; it protects snow leopard, Siberian ibex, Himalayan wolf, and rare Himalayan plants; annual average rainfall <50 mm; altitude 3,500–6,000 m.

Q117. The ancient Hidimba Devi Temple (Manali, Kullu district) is architecturally unique because it is constructed in which style? HP-spec.

1. South Indian Dravidian with gopuram
2. Pagoda-style wooden temple with four-tiered conical roof (Dhungiri style)
3. Mughal marble inlay style
4. Indo-Saracenic style

Answer: B — Pagoda-style wooden temple (Dhungiri style)

The Hidimba Devi Temple (1553 CE) at Manali is built in the pagoda (shikhara) style typical of HP hill architecture: a four-tiered wooden conical roof with carved cedar beams; it is dedicated to Hidimba (wife of Bhima in the Mahabharata) and is set within a natural deodar forest.

Q118. The Himachal Pradesh State Emblem features which image at its centre, symbolising the state’s ecology and spiritual heritage? HP-spec.

1. A snow leopard
2. A deodar tree with snowy peaks
3. A depiction of the Jakhu Temple
4. The Western Tragopan

Answer: B — Deodar tree with snowy peaks

The HP state emblem (seal) features a deodar tree with snow-capped mountain peaks in the background, with the state motto in Sanskrit and the state name; deodar (Cedrus deodara, the state tree) symbolises the ecology and cultural-religious heritage of Himachal Pradesh.

Q119. The Triund trek and Dharamshala (McLeod Ganj) area are headquarters of which religious leader whose exile from Tibet in 1959 has made this region internationally known? HP-spec.

1. The Panchen Lama
2. The Dalai Lama (14th, Tenzin Gyatso)
3. The Karmapa
4. The Rinpoche of Tabo

Answer: B — The Dalai Lama (14th)

His Holiness the 14th Dalai Lama, Tenzin Gyatso, fled Tibet in 1959 following the Chinese occupation and established the Tibetan Government-in-Exile (Central Tibetan Administration) at Dharamshala (McLeod Ganj), Kangra district, HP; he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1989.

Q120. The Spiti Valley is known as a “cold desert.” Which of the following ecological features most accurately characterises the Spiti cold desert ecosystem? HP-spec.

1. High rainfall, dense conifer forests and rich soil
2. Extreme aridity, thin soils, alpine steppe vegetation, short growing season and high UV radiation
3. Tropical dry deciduous vegetation with significant monsoon influence
4. Temperate broadleaf forests and abundant surface water year-round

Answer: B — Extreme aridity, thin soils, alpine steppe, short growing season, high UV

Spiti lies in the trans-Himalayan rain shadow (<50 mm rain/year); soils are thin and poorly developed; vegetation is alpine steppe (grasses, Caragana, cushion plants); growing season is only 3–4 months; intense UV radiation at altitude shapes unique adaptations in endemic species like snow leopard and Himalayan snowcock.

Q121. The Rohtang Pass (altitude ~3,978 m), connecting the Kullu Valley to Lahaul, lies on which mountain range of Himachal Pradesh? HP-spec.

1. Outer Himalaya (Shivalik)
2. Pir Panjal range
3. Zanskar range
4. Greater Himalayan range (Himadri)

Answer: B — Pir Panjal range

Rohtang Pass lies on the Pir Panjal range (Middle Himalaya); it is the watershed between the Beas (Kullu side) and the Chandra (Lahaul side); the Atal Tunnel (Rohtang Tunnel, opened 2020) now bypasses this pass to provide year-round connectivity to Lahaul-Spiti.

Q122. Himachal Pradesh’s famous Shawl industry is centred in which district, known for “Kullu shawls” with traditional geometric border patterns? HP-spec.

1. Kangra
2. Kullu
3. Shimla
4. Mandi

Answer: B — Kullu

Kullu shawls are hand-woven woollen shawls with distinctive geometric band patterns in bright colours; they have a GI (Geographical Indication) tag and are a major cottage industry in Bhuntar and Kullu town. Kinnauri shawls (Kinnaur) with striped borders are a related regional product.

Q123. The Triloknath Temple, revered by both Hindus and Buddhists, is situated in which valley of Himachal Pradesh? HP-spec.

1. Spiti Valley
2. Chamba Valley
3. Chenab Valley (Udaipur sub-division, Lahaul)
4. Parbati Valley

Answer: C — Chenab Valley, Lahaul

The Triloknath (Tunde) Temple dedicated to Shiva/Avalokitesvara is in Udaipur (Lahaul), on the banks of the Chandra-Bhaga (Chenab); it is equally sacred to both Hindus (as Shiva) and Tibetan Buddhists (as Avalokitesvara), attracting pilgrims in August for the Pauri Fair.

Q124. The Palampur region in Kangra district is best known for which agricultural product, and what climatic factor makes this region suitable? HP-spec.

1. Apple orchards; cool dry summers
2. Tea cultivation; adequate rainfall (1,800–2,600 mm), mild temperature and well-drained acidic soil
3. Saffron cultivation; well-drained calcareous soil
4. Wheat farming; alluvial plains

Answer: B — Tea cultivation; adequate rainfall and mild temperature

Palampur (Kangra valley) is the tea-growing hub of HP; the region receives 1,800–2,600 mm annual rainfall, has acidic loamy soils and a moderate temperature (15–27°C), conditions ideal for Camellia sinensis; Kangra tea has a GI tag and is renowned for its delicate flavour.

Q125. The Himachal Pradesh High Court is located in which city? HP-spec.

1. Shimla
2. Dharamshala
3. Solan
4. Mandi

Answer: B — Dharamshala

The HP High Court shifted from Shimla to its new building at Dharamshala (Kangra district) in 2021; Dharamshala is also the location of the HP government’s winter secretariat. Shimla remains the state capital with the summer secretariat.

Q126. The famous Shivratri Fair of Mandi is known as the “Kullu Dussehra of Mandi.” How many deities (devtas) traditionally participate and how many days does it last? HP-spec.

1. 100 devtas; 5 days
2. ~200 devtas; 7 days
3. 50 devtas; 3 days
4. ~84 devtas; 4 days

Answer: B — ~200 devtas; 7 days

The Mandi Shivratri Fair (International Shivratri Fair) is held every February/March; about 200 local devtas (deity palanquins) from surrounding villages are brought to Mandi town; the fair lasts 7 days and attracts tourists and pilgrims from across India and abroad.

Q127. Sangla Valley (Baspa Valley) in Kinnaur district is known for cultivation of which high-value fruit? HP-spec.

1. Mango
2. Kiwi
3. Apple and Chilgoza (pine nut)
4. Coconut

Answer: C — Apple and Chilgoza

Sangla Valley in Kinnaur is renowned for high-quality apples (crisp, sweet Malus domestica) and chilgoza pine nuts (Pinus gerardiana); the valley’s altitude (2,600–3,000 m), cool climate and glacial meltwater irrigation create ideal conditions for premium apple cultivation.

Q128. The Rupi Bhaba Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which district of Himachal Pradesh, and it is significant because it connects which two protected areas? HP-spec.

1. Chamba; Great Himalayan NP and Khirganga NP
2. Kinnaur; Great Himalayan NP and Pin Valley NP
3. Lahaul-Spiti; Pin Valley NP and Kibber WLS
4. Kullu; Rupi Bhaba connects to Spiti directly

Answer: B — Kinnaur; connects Great Himalayan NP and Pin Valley NP

Rupi Bhaba WLS (503 km²) in Kinnaur district serves as a biological corridor between the Great Himalayan National Park (Kullu) and Pin Valley NP (Lahaul-Spiti), allowing wildlife movement across the Himalayan divide; it protects snow leopard, Himalayan ibex and the rare Serow.

Q129. Himachal Pradesh has the highest literacy rate among the hill states of India. According to Census 2011, HP’s literacy rate was approximately: HP-spec.

1. 65%
2. 72%
3. 83%
4. 90%

Answer: C — ~83%

As per Census 2011, HP had a literacy rate of approximately 82.8% (male ~89.5%, female ~75.9%), significantly above the national average of 74%; it ranks among the highest in India, reflecting strong investment in school education and the mid-day meal scheme.

Q130. The Kangra miniature painting style is known for its use of soft colours and which distinctive thematic content? HP-spec.

1. Battle scenes and Mughal court life
2. Romantic depictions of Radha-Krishna and themes from the Gita Govinda, with natural landscapes
3. Buddhist Thangka-style iconography with gold leaf
4. Abstract geometric patterns of tribal origin

Answer: B — Radha-Krishna, Gita Govinda, natural landscapes

Kangra painting (18th–19th century, patronised by Raja Sansar Chand) is characterised by soft, lyrical colours, slender figures and romantic themes from the Bhagavata Purana and Gita Govinda; it extensively depicts Himalayan landscapes, rivers and flora as backgrounds to Radha-Krishna narratives.

Q131. Which international body maintains the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, and what is the threshold for a species to be classified as “Critically Endangered”? HPRCA-pat.

1. UNEP; population decline >50% over 10 years
2. IUCN; population reduction ≥80% over 10 years or 3 generations, whichever is longer
3. CBD; fewer than 100 individuals remaining
4. WWF; habitat loss >90% in 50 years

Answer: B — IUCN; ≥80% population reduction over 10 years or 3 generations

The IUCN Red List criteria (Categories A–E) classify a species as Critically Endangered (CR) if, among other criteria, it has suffered a ≥80% population reduction over 10 years or 3 generations (Criterion A); the list is maintained by the IUCN Species Survival Commission.

Q132. The Paris Agreement (2015) on climate change aims to limit global average temperature rise to: HPRCA-pat.

1. 1°C above pre-industrial levels
2. Well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, with efforts to limit to 1.5°C
3. 3°C above 1990 levels
4. 4°C above present baseline

Answer: B — Well below 2°C, pursuing 1.5°C

Article 2 of the Paris Agreement (COP21, 2015) sets the long-term temperature goal at “well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels” while “pursuing efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C;” 195 parties adopted the agreement; NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions) are the implementation tool.

Q134. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2023 was awarded for discoveries concerning: HPRCA-pat.

1. CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing
2. Nucleoside base modifications enabling mRNA vaccines (Karikó and Weissman)
3. Optogenetics and neural circuit control
4. Discovery of the SARS-CoV-2 virus

Answer: B — Nucleoside base modifications enabling mRNA vaccines

The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman for discovering that pseudouridine modification of mRNA suppresses the innate immune response, enabling effective mRNA vaccines — the technology behind COVID-19 mRNA vaccines (Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna).

Q135. Which Indian satellite mission successfully demonstrated soft-landing near the lunar south pole in August 2023? HPRCA-pat.

1. Chandrayaan-1
2. Chandrayaan-2
3. Chandrayaan-3
4. Mangalyaan-2

Answer: C — Chandrayaan-3

Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram lander successfully soft-landed on 23 August 2023 near the lunar south pole (69.37°S), making India the 4th country to achieve a soft lunar landing and the first to land near the south pole; the Pragyan rover operated for ~14 days.

Q136. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature during which global summit and came into force in 1993? HPRCA-pat.

1. Stockholm Conference, 1972
2. Rio Earth Summit (UNCED), 1992
3. Johannesburg World Summit, 2002
4. Nairobi Conference, 1988

Answer: B — Rio Earth Summit (UNCED), 1992

The CBD was opened for signature at UNCED (United Nations Conference on Environment and Development), Rio de Janeiro, June 1992; entered into force December 1993; it has three main objectives: conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair sharing of benefits from genetic resources.

Q137. “One Health” is a WHO-endorsed concept that recognises: HPRCA-pat.

1. Only human health should be considered in policy-making
2. Human, animal and ecosystem health are deeply interconnected and must be addressed in an integrated way
3. Veterinary science should be merged with human medicine
4. Wild animals should be kept free of any human intervention

Answer: B — Human, animal and ecosystem health are interconnected

“One Health” (formalised post-2004) recognises that 60% of human infectious diseases are zoonotic; it promotes cross-disciplinary collaboration between human medicine, veterinary science and environmental/ecological sciences to prevent pandemics, AMR and food safety threats.

Q138. India’s Jal Jeevan Mission (Har Ghar Jal) aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through household tap connections to every rural household by: HPRCA-pat.

1. 2022
2. 2024
3. 2030
4. 2035

Answer: B — 2024

The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched in 2019 with the target of providing Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to all ~19 crore rural households by 2024; it operates under the Ministry of Jal Shakti; HP has achieved near-saturation coverage ahead of the national timeline.

Q139. A submarine can float and sink because it uses ballast tanks to control buoyancy. This is best explained by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Bernoulli’s principle
2. Archimedes’ principle: an object floats when its weight equals the weight of fluid displaced
3. Pascal’s law of pressure transmission
4. Newton’s third law of motion

Answer: B — Archimedes’ principle

Submarines admit water into ballast tanks to increase overall density beyond that of seawater (sinking) or pump it out to reduce density below seawater (surfacing); at neutral buoyancy, the submarine’s weight equals the weight of water displaced — Archimedes’ principle governs this.

Q140. In a class, 60% of students passed in Biology and 40% passed in Chemistry; 20% passed in both. What percentage passed in neither subject? HPRCA-pat.

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 40%

Answer: B — 20%

By inclusion-exclusion: P(Biology ∪ Chemistry) = 60 + 40 − 20 = 80%; therefore passed in neither = 100 − 80 = 20%. This standard Venn diagram / set-theory reasoning question tests logical reasoning ability.

Q141. If EARTH is coded as FCTVJ, what is the code for WATER? HPRCA-pat.

1. XCUFS
2. XBUFS
3. YBUGT
4. XBVGT

Answer: B — XBUFS

In the code, each letter is shifted forward by +1 (E→F, A→B, R→S, T→U, H→I confirms +1 shift). Applying +1 to WATER: W→X, A→B, T→U, E→F, R→S ⇒ XBUFS.

Q142. The preamble to the Indian Constitution describes India as a “sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic.” The words “socialist” and “secular” were inserted by which constitutional amendment? HPRCA-pat.

1. 42nd Amendment, 1976
2. 44th Amendment, 1978
3. 73rd Amendment, 1992
4. 86th Amendment, 2002

Answer: A — 42nd Amendment, 1976

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) during PM Indira Gandhi’s government inserted “socialist” and “secular” into the Preamble and also “integrity” to “unity and integrity of the nation;” this amendment was passed during the Emergency period.

Q143. Which Indian scientist was the first woman to win the Padma Bhushan and is recognised for her contributions to crystallography and structural biology? HPRCA-pat.

1. Asima Chatterjee
2. Kamala Sohonie
3. Shakuntala Devi
4. Janaki Ammal

Answer: A — Asima Chatterjee

Dr Asima Chatterjee (1917–2006) was a pioneering Indian chemist known for her work on vinca alkaloids (anti-cancer drugs) and anti-malarial compounds; she was the first woman D.Sc. from an Indian university and the first woman elected Fellow of the Indian National Science Academy; she received the Padma Bhushan in 1975.

Q145. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920–22 primarily in response to which two events? HPRCA-pat.

1. Partition of Bengal (1905) and Swadeshi Movement
2. Jallianwala Bagh massacre (1919) and the Rowlatt Act (1919)
3. Simon Commission (1927) and Nehru Report
4. Salt March (1930) and Civil Disobedience Movement

Answer: B — Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Rowlatt Act

Gandhi’s disillusionment after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre (April 1919) and the repressive Rowlatt Act (1919, which extended wartime emergency measures) led him to launch the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22); it was suspended after the Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922).

Q146. Choose the word MOST SIMILAR in meaning to “ephemeral”: HPRCA-pat.

1. Permanent
2. Transient
3. Abundant
4. Profound

Answer: B — Transient

“Ephemeral” means lasting for a very short time; it is derived from Greek ephemeros (lasting a day); synonyms include transient, fleeting, momentary and transitory. It is often used in biology (ephemeral plants/streams) and is a standard HPRCA vocabulary item.

Q147. Identify the grammatically CORRECT sentence: HPRCA-pat.

1. Neither the teachers nor the principal were present.
2. Neither the teachers nor the principal was present.
3. Neither the teachers nor the principal are present.
4. Neither the teachers nor the principal have been present.

Answer: B — “...nor the principal was present.”

With “neither...nor,” the verb agrees with the subject closest to it (proximity rule); the closest subject is “the principal” (singular), so the verb must be singular “was;” option A uses “were” (agreeing with the farther plural “teachers”) which violates the proximity rule.

Q148. ‘क्षमा’ शब्द का सही विलोम शब्द है: HPRCA-pat.

1. दुर्बलता
2. निर्दयता
3. उदारता
4. क्रूरता

Answer: D — क्रूरता

‘क्षमा’ (क्षमा = forgiveness/mercy) का विलोम ‘क्रूरता’ (क्रूरता = cruelty) है। उदारता = generosity, निर्दयता = cruelty/heartlessness (near synonym to kroorata); दुर्बलता = weakness. The best antonym for kṣamā is krūratā.

Q149. In the following sentence, choose the correct form of the verb: “The committee ___ decided to postpone the meeting.” HPRCA-pat.

1. have
2. has
3. are
4. were

Answer: B — has

“Committee” is a collective noun; in British English usage (standard in Indian exams), collective nouns referring to a body acting as a single unit take singular verbs; “The committee has decided” is therefore correct. If individual members were acting separately, “have” could be used in British usage, but “has” is the standard answer expected.

Q150. निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान के लिए सही मुहावरे का चयन कीजिए: “अज्ठ्कल वह लड़े से ईतना हार गया कि उसने ___ नहीं ूठायी।” HPRCA-pat.

1. उंगली
2. अांखें
3. कमर
4. आंखें

Answer: D — आंखें

मुहावरा ‘आंखें न ूठाना’ का आशय है दःन से निराश होना। वाक्य के संदर्भ (णेआर हार) में यही मुहावरा सकारात्मक चुनाव है।