Mock Test 1

Q1. Which of the following is a sub-viral agent consisting of naked circular ssRNA with no protein coat? HPRCA-pat.

1. Prion
2. Viroid
3. Virusoid
4. Mycoplasma

Answer: B — Viroid

Viroids (discovered by T.O. Diener, 1971) are the smallest known plant pathogens — naked circular ssRNA with no capsid. Prions are misfolded proteins with no nucleic acid.

Q2. The T4 bacteriophage has which type of capsid symmetry? HPRCA-pat.

1. Helical
2. Icosahedral
3. Complex
4. Spherical

Answer: C — Complex

T4 phage has a complex capsid: icosahedral head + helical tail + base-plate with tail fibres. TMV is helical; adenovirus is icosahedral.

Q3. Isogamy, anisogamy, and oogamy all occur within the same class of algae in: HPRCA-pat.

1. Phaeophyceae
2. Chlorophyceae
3. Rhodophyceae
4. Xanthophyceae

Answer: B — Chlorophyceae

Green algae show the full gametic range: isogamy (Chlamydomonas sp.), anisogamy (Chlamydomonas braunii), oogamy (Volvox). Phaeophyceae shows isogamy and oogamy but not all three within one family as clearly.

Q4. Which alga is commercially harvested for agar-agar, widely used in microbiology growth media? HPRCA-pat.

1. Sargassum
2. Laminaria
3. Gelidium
4. Spirogyra

Answer: C — Gelidium

Gelidium and Gracilaria (Rhodophyceae) are the primary commercial sources of agar. Laminaria gives algin; Sargassum gives fucoidan.

Q5. In pteridophytes, the first generation to show vascular tissue is the: HPRCA-pat.

1. Prothallus (gametophyte)
2. Sporophyte
3. Protonema
4. Endosperm

Answer: B — Sporophyte

In pteridophytes the dominant free-living generation is the diploid sporophyte which bears vascular tissue (xylem and phloem). The gametophyte (prothallus) is small, free-living, and non-vascular.

Q6. Heterospory is considered a precursor to seed habit because: HPRCA-pat.

1. Microspores are larger than megaspores
2. The megaspore is retained on the parent sporophyte and develops into a female gametophyte in situ
3. Heterospory leads directly to double fertilisation
4. Heterosporous plants lack archegonia

Answer: B — Megaspore retained on parent

Retention of the megaspore within the megasporangium leads to endosporic development of the female gametophyte — the fundamental feature of seed formation. Examples: Selaginella, Salvinia.

Q7. In the Bentham and Hooker system, gymnosperms are placed: HPRCA-pat.

1. Before dicotyledons
2. After monocotyledons
3. Between dicotyledons and monocotyledons
4. Along with cryptogams

Answer: C — Between dicotyledons and monocotyledons

Bentham & Hooker's Genera Plantarum (1862–83) is a natural system that places Gymnospermae between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae — a recognised limitation of the system.

Q8. The floral formula   ♂ K₅ C₅ A_∞ G_(∞)   is most consistent with which family? HPRCA-pat.

1. Fabaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Ranunculaceae
4. Asteraceae

Answer: C — Ranunculaceae

Numerous free stamens (A_∞) and numerous free carpels (G_∞) on a convex thalamus are hallmark features of Ranunculaceae (Ranunculus, Clematis).

Q9. N.I. Vavilov identified eight primary centres of origin of cultivated plants. Which centre is considered the origin of wheat and barley? HPRCA-pat.

1. Chinese centre
2. Indo-Malayan centre
3. South-West Asiatic (Near East) centre
4. Mediterranean centre

Answer: C — South-West Asiatic (Near East) centre

The Fertile Crescent / Near East is Vavilov's centre for wheat (Triticum), barley (Hordeum), rye, and oats. The Chinese centre is the origin of soya bean and millet.

Q10. Which cereal is classified as a pseudocereal because it is a dicot yet consumed as a grain crop? HPRCA-pat.

1. Sorghum
2. Buckwheat (Fagopyrum)
3. Pearl millet
4. Finger millet

Answer: B — Buckwheat (Fagopyrum)

True cereals belong to Poaceae (monocots). Buckwheat (Polygonaceae) is a dicot used as a grain — a pseudocereal. Ogla (buckwheat) is traditionally cultivated in Kinnaur and Spiti districts of HP.

Q11. Jute fibre is obtained from which part of Corchorus capsularis? HPRCA-pat.

1. Seed hair (trichome)
2. Phloem (bast) fibres of the stem
3. Xylem fibres of the root
4. Leaf epidermis

Answer: B — Phloem (bast) fibres of the stem

Jute is a bast (phloem) fibre extracted by retting the stem. Cotton fibre, in contrast, is a seed hair (trichome) from the seed coat of Gossypium.

Q12. Mustard (Brassica juncea) belongs to which family and is a major oilseed crop of the Himalayan foothills. The oil contains erucic acid as a characteristic fatty acid. Which fatty acid is this? HPRCA-pat.

1. C18:1 (oleic acid)
2. C20:1 (gondoic acid)
3. C22:1 (erucic acid)
4. C16:0 (palmitic acid)

Answer: C — C22:1 (erucic acid)

Erucic acid is a long-chain monounsaturated C22:1 fatty acid characteristic of traditional mustard and rapeseed oils. High erucic varieties have been largely replaced by Canola (HEAR/LEAR types) for edible purposes.

Q13. Tea (Camellia sinensis) belongs to which family? HPRCA-pat.

1. Rubiaceae
2. Theaceae
3. Malvaceae
4. Solanaceae

Answer: B — Theaceae

Tea belongs to Theaceae. Coffee (Coffea arabica) is Rubiaceae; cocoa (Theobroma cacao) is Malvaceae (formerly Sterculiaceae).

Q14. Saffron, the world’s most expensive spice, is derived from which part of Crocus sativus? HPRCA-pat.

1. Petals
2. Stigmas (dried)
3. Anthers
4. Ovary wall

Answer: B — Stigmas (dried)

The three dried stigmas of each flower constitute saffron. Kishtwar district of J&K and parts of HP bordering Kashmir are traditional growing areas. The colouring compound is crocin (a carotenoid).

Q15. Aconitum heterophyllum (Atis), harvested from alpine meadows of Himachal Pradesh, is used medicinally as: HP-spec.

1. Antihypertensive
2. Antipyretic and anti-inflammatory (Ayurvedic)
3. Antifungal agent
4. Vasodilator

Answer: B — Antipyretic and anti-inflammatory (Ayurvedic)

Aconitum heterophyllum (Atis/Atees) is an important Ayurvedic drug from the Ranunculaceae family used for fevers and digestive ailments. It is endangered due to over-collection in HP.

Q16. Taxus baccata (Himalayan yew), found in Chail and Kufri forests of HP, yields a compound used in cancer chemotherapy. This compound is: HP-spec.

1. Vinblastine
2. Paclitaxel (Taxol)
3. Colchicine
4. Quinine

Answer: B — Paclitaxel (Taxol)

Paclitaxel stabilises microtubules and prevents spindle disassembly, arresting cells in mitosis. Vinblastine comes from Catharanthus; colchicine from Colchicum; quinine from Cinchona.

Q17. Casparian strips in the endodermis of roots are composed of: HPRCA-pat.

1. Cellulose and hemicellulose
2. Suberin and lignin
3. Pectin and calcium
4. Cutin and wax

Answer: B — Suberin and lignin

The Casparian strip is a band of suberin (and lignin) deposited in the radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells, forcing all solutes to pass through the symplast into the stele.

Q18. Which of the following is a complex permanent tissue found in plants?

1. Collenchyma
2. Parenchyma
3. Phloem
4. Sclerenchyma

Answer: C — Phloem

Complex tissues contain more than one cell type. Phloem consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma, and phloem fibres. Xylem is also complex. Collenchyma, parenchyma, and sclerenchyma are simple tissues.

Q19. In a dicot stem, the vascular bundles are described as collateral, open, and endarch. “Open” refers to the presence of: HPRCA-pat.

1. Pith lacunae
2. Cambium between xylem and phloem
3. Large intercellular spaces
4. Multi-layered epidermis

Answer: B — Cambium between xylem and phloem

Open vascular bundle = fascicular cambium present between xylem and phloem, enabling secondary growth. Monocot bundles are closed (no cambium).

Q20. In a monocot root (e.g., maize), how many protoxylem poles (arches) are typically present?

1. 2 (diarch)
2. 4 (tetrarch)
3. More than 6 (polyarch)
4. 1 (monarch)

Answer: C — More than 6 (polyarch)

Monocot roots are polyarch (>6 protoxylem strands) with a large pith at the centre. Dicot roots are typically di- to tetrarch with little or no pith.

Q21. Isobilateral leaves with equal palisade layers on both surfaces are characteristic of: HPRCA-pat.

1. Dicot dorsiventral leaves
2. Monocot leaves
3. Conifer needles
4. Hydrophyte floating leaves

Answer: B — Monocot leaves

Monocot leaves (isobilateral / centric) show mesophyll with palisade tissue on both adaxial and abaxial surfaces; stomata are present on both surfaces. Dicot leaves are dorsiventral with palisade only on the upper side.

Q23. The female gametophyte of a typical angiosperm (Polygonum type) contains how many cells at maturity? HPRCA-pat.

1. 4 cells / 4 nuclei
2. 7 cells / 8 nuclei
3. 8 cells / 8 nuclei
4. 3 cells / 3 nuclei

Answer: B — 7 cells / 8 nuclei

The 8-nucleate embryo sac has 7 cells: 3 antipodals, 2 synergids, 1 egg cell, and 1 binucleate central cell (2 polar nuclei). Total cells = 7, nuclei = 8.

Q25. The enzyme RuBisCO catalyses carboxylation in the Calvin cycle. RuBisCO stands for: HPRCA-pat.

1. Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase / oxygenase
2. Ribose bisphosphate carboxylase / oxidase
3. Ribulose biphosphate carbonyl / organiser
4. Ribonuclease bisphosphate carboxylase / oxygenase

Answer: A — Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase / oxygenase

RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase) fixes CO₂ onto RuBP to form two molecules of 3-PGA in the C3 cycle. It also catalyses oxygenation (photorespiration) when O₂ replaces CO₂.

Q26. In C4 plants, the primary CO₂ fixation product in mesophyll cells is: HPRCA-pat.

1. 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA)
2. Oxaloacetate (OAA)
3. Pyruvate
4. Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

Answer: B — Oxaloacetate (OAA)

In C4 plants, PEP carboxylase in mesophyll cells fixes CO₂ onto PEP to form a 4-carbon OAA (hence C4). OAA is converted to malate/aspartate and shuttled to bundle sheath cells where RuBisCO fixes it again.

Q27. The site of the light-dependent reactions (light reactions) of photosynthesis in a chloroplast is the:

1. Stroma
2. Thylakoid membrane (grana)
3. Inner chloroplast envelope
4. Outer chloroplast envelope

Answer: B — Thylakoid membrane (grana)

PSI, PSII, ATP synthase, and the electron transport chain are all embedded in the thylakoid membranes. The Calvin (dark) cycle occurs in the stroma.

Q28. Which plant growth regulator is responsible for apical dominance and induces adventitious root formation in stem cuttings? HPRCA-pat.

1. Gibberellin
2. Auxin (IAA)
3. Cytokinin
4. Abscisic acid

Answer: B — Auxin (IAA)

Auxin (Indole-3-acetic acid) produced at the apical meristem suppresses lateral bud growth (apical dominance) and promotes rooting in cuttings. Cytokinin promotes bud growth and overcomes apical dominance.

Q29. Gibberellins are responsible for which of the following processes in plants? HPRCA-pat.

1. Stomatal closure during water stress
2. Internode elongation and bolting in rosette plants
3. Senescence and abscission
4. Cell division in the root apical meristem only

Answer: B — Internode elongation and bolting

Gibberellins promote stem elongation (internodal growth) and cause rosette plants to bolt (rapid stem elongation prior to flowering). ABA causes stomatal closure; ethylene promotes senescence and abscission.

Q30. A critical night length experiment demonstrates that a short-day plant actually responds to: HPRCA-pat.

1. A minimum length of continuous light
2. A minimum length of uninterrupted darkness
3. Total light received per day
4. Red light intensity at dawn

Answer: B — Minimum length of uninterrupted darkness

Hamner & Bonner (1938) showed that a brief light break in the middle of a long night inhibits flowering in short-day plants. The critical factor is a minimum dark period, not a short photoperiod per se.

Q31. Which phylum is characterised by a water vascular system used for locomotion and feeding? HPRCA-pat.

1. Annelida
2. Echinodermata
3. Mollusca
4. Arthropoda

Answer: B — Echinodermata

The water vascular system (ambulacral system) is unique to Echinodermata. It connects to tube feet used in locomotion, feeding, and gas exchange. Echinoderms also show pentaradial symmetry as adults.

Q32. Flame cells (solenocytes) serve as the excretory organs in: HPRCA-pat.

1. Annelida
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Nematoda
4. Arthropoda

Answer: B — Platyhelminthes

Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) use protonephridia equipped with flame cells for osmoregulation and excretion. Annelids use nephridia; arthropods use Malpighian tubules or green glands.

Q33. The body plan with a true coelom (schizocoel), segmentation, and closed circulatory system belongs to: HPRCA-pat.

1. Mollusca
2. Nematoda
3. Annelida
4. Porifera

Answer: C — Annelida

Annelids have a true coelom formed by schizocoely, metamerism (segmentation), and a closed circulatory system with haemoglobin dissolved in plasma (Earthworm). Mollusca have an open circulatory system (except cephalopods).

Q34. Identify the odd one out from the following chordates based on absence of a true vertebral column: HPRCA-pat.

1. Petromyzon (lamprey)
2. Branchiostoma (amphioxus)
3. Herdmania (sea squirt)
4. Frog

Answer: D — Frog

Lamprey, amphioxus, and sea squirt are all non-vertebrate chordates (Agnatha / Cephalochordata / Urochordata). Frog is a vertebrate amphibian with a true vertebral column — the odd one out in the context of lacking a vertebral column.

Q35. Nematocysts (cnidoblasts) are the defining stinging cells of the phylum: HPRCA-pat.

1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Platyhelminthes
4. Ctenophora

Answer: B — Cnidaria

Nematocysts (cnidae) are unique to Cnidaria (Coelenterata) and are used for prey capture and defence. They are the most complex organelles known in any cell. Ctenophora have colloblasts, not nematocysts.

Q36. Which class of Arthropoda has the body divided into cephalothorax and abdomen, four pairs of walking legs, and chelicerae instead of antennae?

1. Insecta
2. Myriapoda
3. Arachnida
4. Crustacea

Answer: C — Arachnida

Spiders, scorpions, mites, and ticks belong to Arachnida: no antennae, chelicerae + pedipalps, 4 pairs of walking legs. Insects have 3 pairs of legs and one pair of antennae.

Q37. In which animal group does regeneration reach its most remarkable expression, with a single individual being able to regrow from a small fragment? HPRCA-pat.

1. Annelida
2. Cnidaria (Hydra)
3. Platyhelminthes (Planaria)
4. Echinodermata

Answer: C — Planaria

Planaria can regenerate a complete organism from 1/279th of the body. This extreme regenerative ability is due to neoblasts (pluripotent stem cells). Hydra also regenerates well, but Planaria is the textbook exemplar for this level of regeneration.

Q38. Homologous organs are those that have the same: HPRCA-pat.

1. Function but different origins
2. Origin (embryonic) but may differ in function
3. Both origin and function
4. Structure but are vestigial in one species

Answer: B — Origin (embryonic) but may differ in function

Homologous organs share a common evolutionary origin (same embryonic derivation) but may be adapted for different functions — e.g., forelimbs of whale, bat, and human. Analogous organs share function but differ in origin.

Q39. The heart of a fish has how many chambers?

1. Two (one auricle, one ventricle)
2. Three (two auricles, one ventricle)
3. Four
4. One (single undivided chamber)

Answer: A — Two (one auricle, one ventricle)

Fish have a two-chambered heart: one auricle (atrium) + one ventricle. Amphibians: 3 chambers; reptiles (except crocodiles): 3.5; crocodiles, birds, mammals: 4 chambers.

Q41. Match the following excretory organs with their animal groups:

1. P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
2. P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
3. P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
4. P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Answer: A — P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Malpighian tubules: insects (cockroach); Nephridia: annelids (earthworm); Green glands (antennal glands): crustaceans (prawn); Flame cells (protonephridia): Platyhelminthes (planaria).

Q42. Which of the following statements about the evolution of the vertebrate heart is CORRECT? HPRCA-pat.

1. Reptiles have a completely four-chambered heart
2. Crocodiles are the only reptiles with a four-chambered heart
3. Amphibians have a four-chambered heart
4. All reptiles have a three-chambered heart

Answer: B — Crocodiles only

Among reptiles, only crocodiles (order Crocodilia) have a fully four-chambered heart. Other reptiles (lizards, snakes, turtles) have a three-chambered heart with a partial or no interventricular septum.

Q43. Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant in human serum and provides secondary immune response? HPRCA-pat.

1. IgM
2. IgA
3. IgG
4. IgE

Answer: C — IgG

IgG (~75% of serum antibodies) is produced in the secondary (anamnestic) immune response, crosses the placenta, and provides passive immunity to the neonate. IgM is the first antibody produced (primary response); IgA predominates in secretions.

Q44. The normal resting heart rate (adult human) is approximately:

1. 40–50 beats per minute
2. 72 beats per minute
3. 100 beats per minute
4. 120 beats per minute

Answer: B — 72 beats per minute

Normal adult resting heart rate is 60–100 bpm; 72 bpm is the standard textbook reference value. The SA node (pacemaker) sets this intrinsic rate.

Q45. The process by which CO₂ is transported in blood primarily as bicarbonate ions is facilitated by the enzyme: HPRCA-pat.

1. Carbonic anhydrase
2. Lactate dehydrogenase
3. Cytochrome oxidase
4. Phosphofructokinase

Answer: A — Carbonic anhydrase

Carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells catalyses CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃ → H⁺ + HCO₃⁻. About 70% of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate.

Q46. In the human kidney, the loop of Henle plays a key role in: HPRCA-pat.

1. Filtration of blood plasma
2. Establishing a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium
3. Secretion of H⁺ ions
4. Reabsorption of glucose

Answer: B — Establishing medullary concentration gradient

The countercurrent multiplier mechanism of the loop of Henle creates a hypertonic medullary interstitium, enabling the collecting duct (under ADH influence) to concentrate urine up to 1200 mOsm/L.

Q48. The vaccine type that uses live but attenuated (weakened) pathogen to confer immunity is exemplified by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Salk polio vaccine (IPV)
2. Sabin oral polio vaccine (OPV)
3. Hepatitis B recombinant vaccine
4. Tetanus toxoid

Answer: B — Sabin oral polio vaccine (OPV)

OPV (Sabin) uses live attenuated poliovirus. IPV (Salk) uses killed (inactivated) virus. Hepatitis B vaccine is a subunit (recombinant HBsAg) vaccine. Toxoids are chemically inactivated toxins.

Q49. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease? HPRCA-pat.

1. Cholera
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Tuberculosis
4. Malaria

Answer: B — Rheumatoid arthritis

In rheumatoid arthritis the immune system produces antibodies (rheumatoid factor) against synovial joint tissues. Other autoimmune diseases: Type 1 diabetes, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), multiple sclerosis.

Q50. The acrosome of a spermatozoon is derived from the: HPRCA-pat.

1. Mitochondria
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Centriole

Answer: B — Golgi apparatus

The acrosome is a modified lysosome derived from the Golgi apparatus. It contains hydrolytic enzymes (hyaluronidase, acrosin) that help the sperm penetrate the zona pellucida of the egg.

Q51. Capacitation of spermatozoa refers to: HPRCA-pat.

1. Formation of sperm in the testes
2. Maturation of sperm in the epididymis
3. Final functional activation of sperm in the female reproductive tract
4. The acrosome reaction

Answer: C — Final functional activation in female tract

Capacitation is the physiological process occurring in the female genital tract (uterus/oviduct) that renders spermatozoa capable of fertilising the egg. It involves changes in membrane fluidity and motility pattern.

Q52. Implantation of the blastocyst in humans normally occurs in the: HPRCA-pat.

1. Cervix
2. Fallopian tube (oviduct)
3. Endometrium of the uterus
4. Ovarian follicle

Answer: C — Endometrium of the uterus

The blastocyst (day 5–6 after fertilisation) implants in the endometrial lining of the uterus, typically on the posterior wall. Implantation in the fallopian tube = ectopic pregnancy.

Q53. Which hormone is detected by home pregnancy test kits and is secreted by the trophoblast cells of the blastocyst?

1. Progesterone
2. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
3. Oestradiol
4. Luteinising hormone (LH)

Answer: B — Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

hCG maintains the corpus luteum during early pregnancy and appears in maternal urine/blood after implantation. Home tests detect hCG in urine using monoclonal antibodies.

Q54. Sericulture is the rearing of silkworms for silk production. The commercial silkworm is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Antheraea mylitta
2. Bombyx mori
3. Philosamia ricini
4. Attacus atlas

Answer: B — Bombyx mori

Bombyx mori (mulberry silkworm) produces the finest silk. Antheraea produces Tasar silk; Philosamia produces Eri silk. Sirmaur and Bilaspur districts of HP have sericulture units.

Q55. The disease of honeybees caused by the microsporidian parasite Nosema apis is called: HPRCA-pat.

1. Sacbrood
2. Nosemosis (Nosema disease)
3. American foulbrood
4. Varroa infestation

Answer: B — Nosemosis (Nosema disease)

Nosema apis infects the midgut epithelium of adult honeybees causing nosemosis. American foulbrood is caused by Paenibacillus larvae; Varroa is a mite ectoparasite.

Q56. Pisciculture of Oncorhynchus mykiss (rainbow trout) is extensively practised in Himachal Pradesh in which river system? HP-spec.

1. Yamuna at Paonta Sahib
2. Beas, Sutlej, and Ravi cold-water streams
3. Gobind Sagar reservoir only
4. Pong dam reservoir

Answer: B — Beas, Sutlej, and Ravi cold-water streams

Rainbow trout requires cold, clear, well-oxygenated water (8–18 °C). HP has trout farms on the Beas (Kullu valley), Sutlej (Rampur), and Ravi (Chamba) tributaries under HP Fisheries Department.

Q57. Lac is a resinous secretion produced by the lac insect Kerria lacca. The host trees commercially used for lac cultivation in India include: HPRCA-pat.

1. Sandalwood and teak
2. Ber (Ziziphus), palas (Butea), and kusum (Schleichera)
3. Sal and deodar
4. Bamboo and cane

Answer: B — Ber, palas, and kusum

Palas (Butea monosperma), ber (Ziziphus mauritiana), and kusum (Schleichera oleosa) are the principal host plants for lac cultivation (lacciculture) in India.

Q58. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is used to detect which of the following in clinical diagnosis? HPRCA-pat.

1. DNA mutations only
2. Antigens or antibodies in patient samples
3. Bacterial cultures
4. Chromosomal abnormalities

Answer: B — Antigens or antibodies

ELISA detects and quantifies antigens (e.g., HIV p24 antigen) or antibodies (e.g., anti-HIV antibodies) in serum or other fluids using enzyme-labelled antibodies and a colorimetric substrate.

Q59. The Widal test is used to diagnose infection caused by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Salmonella typhi
3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
4. Treponema pallidum

Answer: B — Salmonella typhi

The Widal test detects agglutinating antibodies (anti-O and anti-H) against S. typhi, the causative agent of typhoid fever. A rising titre in paired sera is diagnostic.

Q60. Which imaging technique uses high-frequency sound waves and is completely free of ionising radiation? HPRCA-pat.

1. CT scan (Computed Tomography)
2. X-ray radiography
3. Ultrasonography (USG)
4. Positron emission tomography (PET)

Answer: C — Ultrasonography (USG)

USG uses 1–20 MHz ultrasound waves; no ionising radiation. CT and X-ray use ionising radiation; PET uses positron-emitting radionuclides. USG is the standard first-line imaging in obstetrics.

Q61. The resolution limit of a light microscope is approximately: HPRCA-pat.

1. 0.2 nm
2. 200 nm (0.2 µm)
3. 2 mm
4. 20 µm

Answer: B — 200 nm (0.2 µm)

The limit of resolution of a light microscope is ~200 nm (0.2 µm), set by the wavelength of visible light. TEM resolves down to 0.2 nm — 1000× better — enabling visualisation of macromolecules.

Q62. The organelle responsible for intracellular digestion of worn-out organelles (autophagy) is the: HPRCA-pat.

1. Peroxisome
2. Lysosome
3. Glyoxysome
4. Ribosome

Answer: B — Lysosome

Lysosomes contain over 50 hydrolytic enzymes active at pH ~5 and digest cellular debris in autolysosomes. Peroxisomes degrade fatty acids and H₂O₂; glyoxysomes (in seeds) convert fats to carbohydrates.

Q63. A human somatic cell has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be present in a secondary oocyte just before fertilisation? HPRCA-pat.

1. 46
2. 23
3. 92
4. 44

Answer: B — 23

The secondary oocyte has completed meiosis I and is arrested at metaphase II. It is haploid (n = 23 chromosomes). Each chromosome at this stage consists of two sister chromatids.

Q64. During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes first become clearly visible and the nuclear envelope begins to disintegrate? HPRCA-pat.

1. Interphase
2. Prophase
3. Metaphase
4. Anaphase

Answer: B — Prophase

In prophase, chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes, the mitotic spindle begins to form, and the nuclear envelope starts to break down. Chromosome alignment on the metaphase plate occurs in metaphase.

Q66. Contact inhibition is lost in cancer cells. This means cancer cells: HPRCA-pat.

1. Cannot form blood vessels
2. Continue dividing even when they touch neighbouring cells
3. Fail to undergo apoptosis only
4. Produce excess extracellular matrix

Answer: B — Continue dividing when touching neighbours

Normal cells stop dividing when they contact each other (contact inhibition). Cancer cells lose this property and pile up into tumour masses. This, combined with evasion of apoptosis and unlimited replication, drives tumour growth.

Q67. Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

1. Lipid and steroid hormone synthesis
2. Detoxification of drugs and poisons in liver cells
3. Synthesis of secretory proteins (exported proteins)
4. Calcium storage in muscle cells

Answer: C — Synthesis of secretory proteins

Secretory protein synthesis occurs on ribosomes attached to the rough ER (RER). SER lacks ribosomes and specialises in lipid/steroid synthesis, drug detoxification (cytochrome P450 enzymes), and Ca²⁺ regulation.

Q68. In a monohybrid cross, Mendel's Law of Segregation states that: HPRCA-pat.

1. Alleles of different genes assort independently
2. Two alleles of the same gene separate during gamete formation
3. Dominant alleles always suppress recessive alleles
4. All offspring of a cross are identical to one parent

Answer: B — Two alleles separate during gamete formation

The Law of Segregation (Mendel, 1866): the two alleles at any locus segregate from each other during meiosis so that each gamete carries only one allele. Independent assortment applies to alleles at different (unlinked) loci.

Q69. Genes that show linkage tend to be inherited together because they are: HPRCA-pat.

1. Located on different chromosomes
2. Located on the same chromosome (close together)
3. Completely dominant over each other
4. Found only on sex chromosomes

Answer: B — Located on the same chromosome

Linked genes on the same chromosome tend to move together during inheritance. The closer together they are, the lower the recombination frequency, and the stronger the linkage. Morgan’s work on Drosophila established this.

Q70. In humans, sex is determined by: HPRCA-pat.

1. The number of X chromosomes in the egg
2. Whether the sperm carries X or Y chromosome
3. Environmental temperature during development
4. Maternal diet during pregnancy

Answer: B — X or Y chromosome in sperm

Human eggs are all X-bearing (22 + X). Sperm are either X-bearing (22 + X → XX = female) or Y-bearing (22 + Y → XY = male). The SRY gene on the Y chromosome triggers testis determination.

Q71. The Chargaff rules state that in double-stranded DNA: HPRCA-pat.

1. [A] = [G] and [C] = [T]
2. [A] = [T] and [G] = [C]
3. [A] + [T] = [G] + [C]
4. [A] = [C] and [T] = [G]

Answer: B — [A] = [T] and [G] = [C]

Erwin Chargaff (1950) found that in dsDNA, adenine always equals thymine ([A]=[T]) and guanine always equals cytosine ([G]=[C]), reflecting complementary base pairing in the Watson–Crick double helix.

Q72. The wobble hypothesis (Crick, 1966) explains: HPRCA-pat.

1. Why the genetic code is degenerate
2. Non-Watson-Crick base pairing at the third codon position
3. Stop codons having no tRNA
4. Frameshift mutations

Answer: B — Non-standard base pairing at third codon position

The wobble hypothesis states that the 5′ base of the anticodon (position 34) can form non-standard base pairs with multiple bases at the 3′ (wobble) position of the codon, allowing one tRNA to recognise multiple synonymous codons — hence degeneracy.

Q73. The lac operon model of gene regulation was proposed by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Watson and Crick
2. Jacob and Monod
3. Nirenberg and Khorana
4. McClintock and Morgan

Answer: B — Jacob and Monod

François Jacob and Jacques Monod (1961, Nobel 1965) proposed the operon model based on the lac operon of E. coli: repressor + operator + structural genes coordinately regulated by the inducer (allolactose).

Q74. Which of the following correctly represents the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with alleles A (freq. p) and a (freq. q)?

1. p² + q² = 1
2. p + q = 1 and p² + 2pq + q² = 1
3. 2pq = 1
4. p² + q² + pq = 1

Answer: B — p + q = 1 and p² + 2pq + q² = 1

Hardy-Weinberg law: allele frequencies sum to 1 (p + q = 1); genotype frequencies AA: p², Aa: 2pq, aa: q². These remain constant generation-to-generation in the absence of evolution-driving forces.

Q75. The theory of evolution by natural selection was simultaneously proposed by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Darwin and Lamarck
2. Darwin and Wallace
3. Darwin and Mendel
4. Huxley and Haeckel

Answer: B — Darwin and Wallace

Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace independently developed the theory of evolution by natural selection; their papers were jointly presented at the Linnean Society in 1858. Darwin’s On the Origin of Species was published in 1859.

Q76. The restriction endonuclease EcoRI recognises and cleaves at the sequence: HPRCA-pat.

1. 5′-GGATCC-3′
2. 5′-AAGCTT-3′
3. 5′-GAATTC-3′
4. 5′-CTGCAG-3′

Answer: C — 5′-GAATTC-3′

EcoRI (from E. coli RY13) cuts 5′-G↓AATTC-3′ generating 4-base 5′ sticky ends. BamHI cuts GGATCC; HindIII cuts AAGCTT; PstI cuts CTGCAG.

Q77. The first transgenic crop approved for commercial cultivation in the USA (1994) was: HPRCA-pat.

1. Bt cotton
2. Flavr Savr tomato
3. Golden Rice
4. Herbicide-resistant soybean

Answer: B — Flavr Savr tomato

The Flavr Savr tomato (Calgene, 1994) was the first genetically engineered food approved for human consumption in the US. It had antisense polygalacturonase gene to delay softening. It was withdrawn due to poor yields and high cost.

Q78. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) amplifies a specific DNA segment. The enzyme used is: HPRCA-pat.

1. E. coli DNA polymerase I
2. Taq polymerase (thermostable)
3. RNA polymerase
4. Reverse transcriptase

Answer: B — Taq polymerase

Taq polymerase (from Thermus aquaticus) withstands repeated denaturation cycles at 94–95 °C. Mullis developed PCR (1983; Nobel 1993). Reverse transcriptase is used in RT-PCR from RNA templates.

Q79. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in plant genetic engineering because its Ti plasmid: HPRCA-pat.

1. Naturally integrates T-DNA into the plant nuclear genome
2. Acts as an RNA vector
3. Kills the plant allowing selection of transformants
4. Carries antibiotic resistance only

Answer: A — T-DNA integrates into plant nuclear genome

The T-DNA (transfer DNA) segment of the Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally integrates into the nuclear genome of infected dicot plants, making it an ideal vector for introducing foreign genes.

Q81. Substrate-level phosphorylation of ATP occurs in which step of glycolysis? HPRCA-pat.

1. Hexokinase reaction
2. Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase reactions
3. Phosphofructokinase reaction
4. Glucose-6-phosphate isomerase reaction

Answer: B — Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase

Two substrate-level ATP synthesis steps in glycolysis: (i) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-PGA (phosphoglycerate kinase) and (ii) PEP → pyruvate (pyruvate kinase), each yielding 1 ATP per molecule (2 ATP per glucose, net).

Q82. The net yield of ATP from complete aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule (conventional estimate) is approximately: HPRCA-pat.

1. 2 ATP
2. 8 ATP
3. 30–32 ATP
4. 38 ATP (invariable)

Answer: C — 30–32 ATP

The updated consensus (using P/O ratios of ~2.5 for NADH and ~1.5 for FADH₂) gives ~30–32 ATP per glucose. The older textbook figure of 36–38 ATP overestimated P/O ratios. Glycolysis alone gives 2 net ATP.

Q83. An enzyme that catalyses the same reaction but exists in different molecular forms in the same organism is called an:

1. Allosteric enzyme
2. Isoenzyme (isozyme)
3. Constitutive enzyme
4. Coenzyme

Answer: B — Isoenzyme (isozyme)

Isozymes catalyse the same reaction but differ in amino acid sequence, kinetic properties, or regulation. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) exists as five isozymes (LDH1–LDH5) with different subunit combinations, important in clinical diagnosis.

Q84. Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by a single amino acid substitution in the β-globin chain. The substitution is: HPRCA-pat.

1. Lysine → Glutamate at position 6
2. Glutamate → Valine at position 6
3. Valine → Phenylalanine at position 6
4. Histidine → Serine at position 6

Answer: B — Glutamate → Valine at position 6

The GAG (Glu) → GTG (Val) point mutation at codon 6 of the β-globin gene creates HbS. Under low O₂, HbS polymerises, distorting RBCs into a sickle shape and causing haemolysis.

Q85. Which vitamin is synthesised in the human skin by the action of ultraviolet light and is essential for calcium absorption? HPRCA-pat.

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B₁₂
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

Answer: D — Vitamin D

UV-B radiation converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in skin to vitamin D₃ (cholecalciferol), which is then hydroxylated in liver (25-OH-D₃) and kidney (1,25-(OH)₂-D₃ = calcitriol) to its active form. Deficiency causes rickets (children) / osteomalacia (adults).

Q86. The 10% energy transfer law in ecology was proposed by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Odum
2. Lindeman
3. Tansley
4. Hutchinson

Answer: B — Lindeman

Raymond Lindeman (1942) proposed that only ~10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next (Lindeman’s Trophic Efficiency Rule). Tansley coined ‘ecosystem’; Odum formalised ecosystem energy budgets.

Q87. The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) in Kullu district, HP, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site designated primarily to protect: HP-spec.

1. Mangrove biodiversity
2. Western Himalayan alpine and sub-alpine ecosystems
3. Deccan plateau grasslands
4. Thar Desert endemic species

Answer: B — Western Himalayan alpine/sub-alpine ecosystems

GHNP (2014 UNESCO WHS) in Kullu-Tirthan-Sainj valley harbours Western Himalayan broadleaf and conifer forests, alpine meadows, and fauna like snow leopard, western tragopan, and musk deer.

Q89. In population ecology, the logistic growth model (S-curve) reaches zero growth rate when: HPRCA-pat.

1. Population = 0
2. Population size (N) equals the carrying capacity (K)
3. Birth rate = 0
4. Resources become infinite

Answer: B — N equals K

In the Verhulst-Pearl logistic equation dN/dt = rN(K−N)/K, growth rate → 0 as N → K (carrying capacity). Beyond K, population declines. At K/2 the population shows the maximum growth rate (inflection point).

Q90. Biodiversity hotspots are defined as areas that are: HPRCA-pat.

1. High in species richness only
2. High in endemic species AND having lost >70% of their original habitat
3. Protected as national parks
4. Experiencing high rainfall with tropical forest cover

Answer: B — High endemism AND >70% habitat loss

Norman Myers (1988, updated 2000) defined hotspots as regions with ≥1500 endemic vascular plant species AND having lost ≥70% of primary habitat. The Western Himalayas (including HP) is part of the Himalaya hotspot.

Q91. Bloom’s Taxonomy (1956) classifies educational objectives into six levels in the cognitive domain. From lowest to highest order, which sequence is CORRECT? HPRCA-pat.

1. Knowledge → Comprehension → Application → Analysis → Synthesis → Evaluation
2. Comprehension → Knowledge → Application → Analysis → Evaluation → Synthesis
3. Knowledge → Application → Comprehension → Analysis → Synthesis → Evaluation
4. Knowledge → Comprehension → Analysis → Application → Synthesis → Evaluation

Answer: A — Knowledge → Comprehension → Application → Analysis → Synthesis → Evaluation

Bloom’s original (1956) cognitive taxonomy: Knowledge, Comprehension, Application, Analysis, Synthesis, Evaluation (lowest to highest). Anderson & Krathwohl (2001) revised it to: Remember, Understand, Apply, Analyse, Evaluate, Create.

Q92. Piaget’s stage of cognitive development in which children (7–11 years) can perform logical operations on concrete objects but not on abstract propositions is called the: HPRCA-pat.

1. Sensorimotor stage
2. Pre-operational stage
3. Concrete operational stage
4. Formal operational stage

Answer: C — Concrete operational stage

Piaget’s four stages: Sensorimotor (0–2 yr), Pre-operational (2–7 yr), Concrete operational (7–11 yr), Formal operational (11+). Concrete operations include conservation, seriation, and classification of physical objects.

Q93. Vygotsky’s concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers to: HPRCA-pat.

1. The range of tasks a child can perform independently
2. The gap between what a child can do alone and what it can do with guidance
3. The physical space needed for optimal learning
4. The maximum IQ potential of a child

Answer: B — Gap between solo and guided performance

ZPD is the distance between a child’s actual developmental level (independent problem-solving) and the potential level reached with the help of a more knowledgeable other (scaffolding). Teaching is most effective when targeted within the ZPD.

Q94. The National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) recommends a new school structure to replace the 10+2 system. The proposed structure is: HPRCA-pat.

1. 4+4+4 (12 years)
2. 5+3+3+4 (15 years including ECCE)
3. 6+4+2 (12 years)
4. 4+3+3+2 (12 years)

Answer: B — 5+3+3+4 (15 years including ECCE)

NEP 2020 proposes a 5+3+3+4 structure: Foundational stage (ages 3–8, 5 years including 3 years ECCE), Preparatory (8–11, 3 years), Middle (11–14, 3 years), and Secondary (14–18, 4 years).

Q95. Which of the following teaching methods is classified as a student-centred (learner-centred) approach? HPRCA-pat.

1. Lecture method
2. Project-based learning (PBL)
3. Demonstration by teacher
4. Dictation of notes

Answer: B — Project-based learning (PBL)

Student-centred methods place the learner at the core of the learning process: PBL, inquiry-based learning, cooperative learning, and discovery learning. Lecture, demonstration, and dictation are teacher-centred.

Q96. The term ‘Formative Assessment’ in education refers to: HPRCA-pat.

1. Assessment conducted at the end of a unit to grade students
2. Ongoing assessment during the learning process to provide feedback and guide instruction
3. Assessment done at the start of an academic year
4. External board examination

Answer: B — Ongoing assessment during learning

Formative assessment is ‘assessment for learning’ — continuous feedback mechanisms (quizzes, observation, class tests) that inform both teacher and learner. Summative assessment is ‘assessment of learning’ — conducted at the end of a learning period.

Q97. Multiple Intelligence Theory, which proposes that intelligence is not a single fixed ability but at least eight distinct types, was proposed by: HPRCA-pat.

1. B.F. Skinner
2. Howard Gardner
3. Jean Piaget
4. Albert Bandura

Answer: B — Howard Gardner

Howard Gardner (1983, Frames of Mind) proposed 8+ intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, bodily-kinaesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalist. This theory has direct implications for biology teaching methods.

Q98. Operant conditioning, where behaviour is shaped through reinforcement and punishment, was developed by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Ivan Pavlov
2. B.F. Skinner
3. Albert Bandura
4. John Watson

Answer: B — B.F. Skinner

B.F. Skinner developed operant conditioning using the Skinner box; he identified positive/negative reinforcement and punishment. Pavlov is associated with classical conditioning; Bandura with social learning theory (modelling).

Q99. The Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) scheme in India was introduced under which Act? HPRCA-pat.

1. University Grants Commission Act, 1956
2. Right to Education Act (RTE), 2009
3. National Policy on Education, 1986
4. Kothari Commission Report, 1964–66

Answer: B — Right to Education Act (RTE), 2009

CCE was formally mandated for classes I–VIII under the RTE Act, 2009 (Section 29), which prohibited retention of students in any class and required holistic, formative evaluation throughout the school year.

Q100. Dyslexia is a specific learning disability that primarily affects: HPRCA-pat.

1. Mathematical computation
2. Reading and language processing
3. Motor coordination
4. Social interaction

Answer: B — Reading and language processing

Dyslexia is a neurobiological learning disability affecting accurate and/or fluent word recognition, decoding, and spelling. It is the most common specific learning disability. Dyscalculia affects maths; dysgraphia affects writing.

Q101. Inclusive education, as mandated under the Salamanca Statement (1994) and the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (2016), means: HPRCA-pat.

1. Educating disabled children in special schools only
2. All children including those with disabilities learn together in regular classrooms
3. Gifted children receive separate enrichment programmes
4. Children are grouped by ability in all subjects

Answer: B — All children learn together in regular classrooms

Inclusive education advocates for children with special needs being educated alongside their peers in mainstream schools with appropriate support (resource rooms, aids, modified curriculum) rather than in segregated settings.

Q102. The constructivist theory of learning suggests that learners: HPRCA-pat.

1. Passively receive and store information provided by the teacher
2. Actively construct knowledge by integrating new information with prior understanding
3. Learn best through rote memorisation
4. Should be rewarded every time they give correct answers

Answer: B — Actively construct knowledge

Constructivism (Piaget, Vygotsky, Bruner) holds that learners build mental models by connecting new experiences with prior knowledge. Implications for biology teaching: use discovery labs, concept mapping, and inquiry-based approaches.

Q103. Which of the following is an example of a convergent question in science teaching?

1. “What do you think would happen if plants had no chlorophyll?”
2. “What is the chemical formula of glucose?”
3. “How might global warming affect biodiversity in your district?”
4. “Design an experiment to test the effect of light intensity on photosynthesis.”

Answer: B — Chemical formula of glucose

Convergent questions have one correct answer and test recall (lower-order thinking). Divergent questions elicit multiple valid responses and promote higher-order thinking (analysis, synthesis, evaluation) — options A, C, D are all divergent.

Q104. According to the National Curriculum Framework 2005 (NCF 2005), which of the following is NOT listed as a guiding principle for science education? HPRCA-pat.

1. Connecting knowledge to life outside school
2. Ensuring that learning shifts away from rote methods
3. Examinations must only be written, formal and standardised
4. Enriching curriculum to go beyond textbooks

Answer: C — Examinations must only be written, formal and standardised

NCF 2005 advocates for diverse and continuous assessment, not exclusive reliance on formal written exams. Its five guiding principles include connecting learning to life, reducing curriculum load, and making examinations flexible and integrated.

Q105. Which method of teaching biology is most effective for developing observational and investigative skills in students? HPRCA-pat.

1. Lecture-cum-demonstration
2. Laboratory (practical) method
3. Textbook reading
4. Educational film viewing

Answer: B — Laboratory (practical) method

The laboratory method develops scientific process skills (observation, hypothesis, experimentation, inference). It aligns with constructivist and inquiry-based principles and is indispensable for biology education according to NCF 2005 and NEP 2020.

Q107. The term ‘Scaffolding’ in education, derived from Vygotsky’s ideas, refers to: HPRCA-pat.

1. Building physical structures for outdoor learning
2. Temporary instructional support that is gradually removed as the learner gains competence
3. Providing a fixed curriculum framework for the entire year
4. Grading students on a percentile scale

Answer: B — Temporary support gradually removed

Scaffolding (Wood, Bruner & Ross, 1976, building on Vygotsky) is the temporary assistance (hints, prompts, guided questions, worked examples) given to learners within the ZPD, which is progressively removed (faded) as competence grows.

Q108. Which of the following is the best example of an intrinsic motivation strategy in a biology classroom? HPRCA-pat.

1. Awarding marks for every correct answer
2. Giving prizes for the top scorers in a class test
3. Designing activities that relate ecology concepts to the students’ own local environment (e.g., local forests and rivers)
4. Threatening students with extra homework for incorrect answers

Answer: C — Relating concepts to local environment

Intrinsic motivation arises from genuine interest, curiosity, and relevance. Connecting ecology to a student’s familiar local environment (a forest, river, farm) creates personal meaning — the most powerful intrinsic motivator. Extrinsic motivators (marks, prizes) are options A and B.

Q109. Himachal Pradesh was granted full statehood on which date? HP-spec.

1. 15 April 1948
2. 25 January 1971
3. 1 November 1966
4. 26 January 1950

Answer: B — 25 January 1971

HP was constituted as a Chief Commissioner’s province on 15 April 1948, became Part-C state in 1950, union territory in 1956, and was granted full statehood as the 18th state on 25 January 1971 under the HP Act, 1970.

Q110. The highest peak in Himachal Pradesh is: HP-spec.

1. Shilla (7025 m)
2. Reo Purgil (6816 m)
3. Manirang (6593 m)
4. Kullu Peak (6553 m)

Answer: A — Shilla (7025 m)

Shilla (7025 m) in the Spiti division (Lahaul-Spiti district) is the highest peak in HP. Reo Purgil (6816 m) is on the HP-China border. Both are in the Trans-Himalayan zone.

Q111. The tribal people of the Kinnaur district who follow a polyandrous tradition and speak a Tibeto-Burman language are the: HP-spec.

1. Gaddis
2. Kinnauris
3. Gujjars
4. Pangwals

Answer: B — Kinnauris

Kinnauris of Kinnaur district are a Scheduled Tribe speaking Kinnauri (Tibeto-Burman family). They have historically practised fraternal polyandry and are known for apple and chilgoza pine nut cultivation.

Q112. The Sutlej river enters Himachal Pradesh from Tibet through which narrow gorge? HP-spec.

1. Shipki La gorge
2. Rohtang Pass
3. Baralacha La
4. Kunzum Pass

Answer: A — Shipki La gorge

The Sutlej (Langchen Khambab in Tibet) enters HP through the Shipki La gorge (Kinnaur). Rohtang, Baralacha La, and Kunzum are passes used for road crossings, not river entry points.

Q113. The Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha has how many seats? HP-spec.

1. 60
2. 68
3. 76
4. 82

Answer: B — 68

The HP Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) consists of 68 directly elected seats. HP sends 4 members to the Lok Sabha and 3 to the Rajya Sabha. The Assembly meets in Shimla (winter) and Dharamsala (summer).

Q114. The Govind Sagar reservoir, one of the largest artificial reservoirs in India, was created by the Bhakra Dam on which river? HP-spec.

1. Beas
2. Ravi
3. Sutlej
4. Chenab

Answer: C — Sutlej

The Bhakra Dam at Nangal (Bilaspur district, HP) on the Sutlej River created Govind Sagar lake (~168 km long). Pong Dam on the Beas creates Maharana Pratap Sagar; Chamera Dam is on the Ravi.

Q115. The Himachal Pradesh Horticulture Produce Marketing & Processing Corporation (HPMC) is best known for marketing: HP-spec.

1. Timber and resin
2. Apples, stone fruits, and processed fruit products
3. Wool and pashmina
4. Fish and aquatic products

Answer: B — Apples, stone fruits, and processed fruit products

HP produces ~25% of India’s apple supply (mainly Shimla, Kullu, Kinnaur districts). HPMC markets apples, pears, plums, apricots, and makes juices, jams, and concentrate under the ‘Him’ brand.

Q116. Which district of HP is known for the Spiti Valley, Pin Valley National Park, and the Key Monastery? HP-spec.

1. Kinnaur
2. Lahaul and Spiti
3. Kullu
4. Chamba

Answer: B — Lahaul and Spiti

Lahaul and Spiti is HP’s largest district (geographically). It contains the Spiti Valley, the Pin Valley National Park (snow leopard habitat), Key Monastery (11th century), and the Chandratal lake.

Q117. The Renuka Ji Wildlife Sanctuary in Sirmaur district, HP, is famous for being the habitat of which endangered mega-fauna? HP-spec.

1. One-horned rhinoceros
2. Indian elephant
3. Snow leopard
4. Bengal tiger

Answer: B — Indian elephant

Renuka Ji WLS (Sirmaur, lower Himalayan foothills) shelters elephants, leopards, and sambar. It is one of the few areas in HP where Indian elephants (Elephas maximus) are found — unusual for the hill region.

Q118. The Himachal Pradesh RERA (Real Estate Regulatory Authority) and the HP High Court are both located in: HP-spec.

1. Dharamsala
2. Mandi
3. Shimla
4. Solan

Answer: C — Shimla

Shimla is the state capital and hosts the HP High Court, HP Assembly (winter session), Secretariat, and most state regulatory bodies including HP RERA. Dharamsala (Kangra) is the ‘winter capital’ for the summer session of the assembly.

Q119. Match the HP dance forms with their associated districts / communities:

1. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
2. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
3. P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
4. P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: A — P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Nati is the most widely performed folk dance of Kullu and Shimla areas (UNESCO recognised intangible cultural heritage). Burah/Buru is a circle dance of Kinnaur. Losar Shona Chuksam is Lahauli-Spiti Buddhist festival dance. Jhanjhar is a Chamba folk dance.

Q120. The Himachal Pradesh government’s ‘Him Care’ health insurance scheme provides annual cashless treatment coverage of up to: HP-spec.

1. &rupee;25,000 per family
2. &rupee;5 lakh per family
3. &rupee;1 lakh per family
4. &rupee;10 lakh per family

Answer: B — &rupee;5 lakh per family

HP’s Him Care scheme (launched 2019) provides up to &rupee;5 lakh per family per year for cashless hospitalisation, covering those not covered under Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY. It complements the central scheme to provide universal health coverage in HP.

Q121. The Kullu Dussehra festival, declared a festival of national importance, is unique because it begins: HP-spec.

1. On Dussehra day itself and continues for 7 days
2. One day after Dussehra (Vijaya Dashami) and continues for 7 days
3. On Navratri Pratipada and ends on Dussehra
4. On Diwali

Answer: B — One day after Dussehra, 7 days

Kullu Dussehra begins on Vijaya Dashami and continues for seven days, when deities (devtas) from across the Kullu valley assemble in the Dhalpur maidan for a grand rath procession — unique in India. It was granted national festival status in 1972.

Q122. Which of the following is the only HP-specific wild sheep species endemic to the Trans-Himalayan region and is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List? HP-spec.

1. Blue sheep (Bharal)
2. Snow leopard
3. Himalayan tahr
4. Chiru (Tibetan antelope)

Answer: A — Blue sheep (Bharal)

Bharal (Pseudois nayaur), or blue sheep, inhabits the steep cliffs and alpine terrain of Spiti and Kinnaur. It is the principal prey of the snow leopard in HP. Chiru is Tibetan; tahr is in the Shivalik-lower Himalaya zone.

Q123. Himachal Pradesh’s first solar power plant of significant capacity was established in: HP-spec.

1. Spiti Valley (Losar)
2. Una district
3. Bilaspur district
4. Solan district

Answer: B — Una district

HP’s lower districts (Una, Hamirpur, Bilaspur) have higher solar irradiance. Una has emerged as a major solar energy hub with large utility-scale solar parks. Spiti has small off-grid solar installations. HP targets 500 MW solar by 2025.

Q124. The Chamba rumal, a fine embroidery art traditionally depicting stories from the Mahabharata and Ramayana, is: HP-spec.

1. Woven on a handloom using Pashmina
2. Double-satin stitch embroidery on muslin, identical on both sides
3. Applique work on denim
4. Block-printed cotton fabric

Answer: B — Double-satin stitch on muslin, identical on both sides

Chamba rumal (GI-tagged) is an exquisite double-satin-stitch embroidery on unbleached cotton or silk muslin; the design appears identical on both sides. Themes are drawn from Pahari miniature paintings. A UNESCO intangible cultural heritage of craft tradition.

Q125. Which major hydropower project on the Chenab River (in the Lahaul-Spiti / Chamba border area) is one of the highest capacity run-of-the-river projects under construction in HP? HP-spec.

1. Nathpa Jhakri (1500 MW)
2. Parbati-II (800 MW)
3. Miyar (120 MW)
4. Bhilangana (22 MW)

Answer: C — Miyar (120 MW)

Miyar Hydro Project (120 MW) is on the Miyar Nala (Chenab tributary) in Lahaul-Spiti. Nathpa Jhakri (1500 MW, SJVN) on the Sutlej is HP’s largest operating plant. Parbati-II (800 MW) is on the Beas tributary in Kullu. This tests specific HP power-sector knowledge.

Q126. The Tibetan capital-in-exile, where the Central Tibetan Administration is located, is situated in HP at: HP-spec.

1. Manali
2. McLeod Ganj, Dharamsala
3. Dalhousie
4. Kasauli

Answer: B — McLeod Ganj, Dharamsala

His Holiness the Dalai Lama has resided in McLeod Ganj (Dharamsala, Kangra district) since 1960. The Central Tibetan Administration (Tibetan Government in exile) is also headquartered there.

Q127. Which of the following hill stations in HP was established as a sanitarium by the British East India Company and served as the summer capital of British India? HP-spec.

1. Dalhousie
2. Kasauli
3. Shimla
4. Chail

Answer: C — Shimla

Shimla (Simla) was first occupied by the British in 1819 and became the summer capital of British India in 1864 under Lord John Lawrence. The Shimla Agreement (1972) between India and Pakistan was signed here.

Q128. Which chronological order correctly represents the founding of major educational institutions in HP? HP-spec.

1. Bishop Cotton School (1859) → HP University (1970) → NIT Hamirpur (1986)
2. HP University (1970) → Bishop Cotton School (1859) → NIT Hamirpur (1986)
3. NIT Hamirpur (1986) → Bishop Cotton School (1859) → HP University (1970)
4. HP University (1970) → NIT Hamirpur (1986) → Bishop Cotton School (1859)

Answer: A — Bishop Cotton (1859) → HP University (1970) → NIT Hamirpur (1986)

Bishop Cotton School, Shimla (1859) is one of India’s oldest boarding schools. HP University, Shimla was established in 1970. National Institute of Technology (NIT) Hamirpur was established in 1986. Correct chronological order: 1859, 1970, 1986.

Q129. The Manali-Leh Highway passes through which high-altitude pass that remains open to wheeled traffic throughout the year (since tunnel completion)? HP-spec.

1. Baralacha La (4890 m)
2. Rohtang Pass (3978 m) — bypassed by Atal Tunnel
3. Tanglang La (5328 m)
4. Lachulung La (5065 m)

Answer: B — Rohtang (bypassed by Atal Tunnel)

The Atal Tunnel (Rohtang) inaugurated in October 2020 at 3100 m provides all-weather road connectivity between Manali and Lahaul valley, bypassing Rohtang Pass (3978 m, typically blocked by snow Oct–May). It is the world’s longest highway tunnel above 10,000 ft.

Q130. The Nag Panchami festival celebrated in HP’s Sirmour and Sirmaur districts involves the worship of: HP-spec.

1. Sacred rivers
2. Serpent deities
3. Mountain peaks
4. The sun god

Answer: B — Serpent deities

Nag Panchami (5th day of Shravan Shukla Paksha) is celebrated across India and HP as worship of serpent (Naga) deities associated with fertility, rain, and protection. The nagdevatas are prominent in HP’s local religious tradition.

Q131. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which includes 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), was adopted by UN Member States in: HPRCA-pat.

1. 2000
2. 2015
3. 2010
4. 2020

Answer: B — 2015

The 2030 Agenda and its 17 SDGs were adopted at the UN Sustainable Development Summit in New York in September 2015, replacing the eight Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) of 2000.

Q132. India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission achieved a historic soft landing near the lunar south pole in: HPRCA-pat.

1. July 2023
2. August 2023
3. September 2022
4. January 2024

Answer: B — August 2023

ISRO’s Chandrayaan-3 lander Vikram touched down near the lunar south pole on 23 August 2023, making India the first country to achieve a soft landing near the Moon’s south pole and the fourth country overall to soft-land on the Moon.

Q133. Which of the following is the primary greenhouse gas contributing to global warming, and from which sector does the largest share of anthropogenic emissions arise? HPRCA-pat.

1. Methane — from agriculture
2. Carbon dioxide — from energy (combustion of fossil fuels)
3. Nitrous oxide — from industry
4. Water vapour — from oceans

Answer: B — CO₂ from energy sector

CO₂ is the dominant anthropogenic greenhouse gas (74% of global emissions); the energy sector (electricity, heat, transport) accounts for over 70% of total global GHG emissions. Methane has higher GWP per molecule but lower atmospheric concentration.

Q134. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and its Nagoya Protocol deal with: HPRCA-pat.

1. Climate change mitigation targets
2. Access to genetic resources and fair sharing of benefits arising from their utilisation
3. Control of transboundary movement of hazardous wastes
4. Protection of the ozone layer

Answer: B — Access and benefit sharing of genetic resources

The Nagoya Protocol (2010, entered into force 2014) to the CBD sets out rules for Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) of genetic resources and associated traditional knowledge. The Basel Convention covers hazardous wastes; the Montreal Protocol covers the ozone layer.

Q135. Which country hosts the secretariat of the World Health Organization (WHO)? HPRCA-pat.

1. United States (New York)
2. France (Paris)
3. Switzerland (Geneva)
4. Belgium (Brussels)

Answer: C — Switzerland (Geneva)

WHO HQ is in Geneva, Switzerland. The UN General Assembly is in New York; UNESCO HQ is in Paris; NATO HQ is in Brussels. WHO was established in 1948.

Q136. The One Health concept recognises that: HPRCA-pat.

1. Only human health matters for policy
2. Human, animal, and environmental health are interconnected and must be addressed jointly
3. Single-disease eradication should be the global health priority
4. Traditional medicine should replace modern medicine

Answer: B — Human, animal, and environmental health are interconnected

One Health is an integrated approach recognising that ∼75% of emerging human infectious diseases are zoonotic (arising from animals) and that ecosystem health underpins both human and animal wellbeing. It informs pandemic preparedness policy post-COVID-19.

Q137. India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) includes the National Mission for a Green India (GIM), which targets afforestation / ecosystem restoration of approximately: HPRCA-pat.

1. 1 million hectares
2. 10 million hectares
3. 100 million hectares
4. 0.5 million hectares

Answer: B — 10 million hectares

The National Mission for a Green India (GIM) under NAPCC targets enhancing forest cover / quality on 10 million hectares (Mha) of degraded forest and non-forest land, aiming to sequester 43 million tonnes of CO₂ equivalent annually by 2030.

Q138. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2023 was awarded for discoveries concerning: HPRCA-pat.

1. CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing
2. Nucleoside base modifications enabling mRNA vaccines
3. Discovery of COVID-19 virus
4. Development of anti-malaria drugs

Answer: B — Nucleoside base modifications enabling mRNA vaccines

Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman won the 2023 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their discoveries on nucleoside base modifications that enabled development of effective mRNA vaccines against COVID-19. CRISPR Nobel was awarded in 2020 (Chemistry).

Q139. A student boils water and places the hot pot on a wooden table. Heat transfer from the hot pot base to the table occurs primarily by: HPRCA-pat.

1. Convection
2. Radiation
3. Conduction
4. Evaporation

Answer: C — Conduction

Direct contact between the hot pot base and the table surface transfers heat by conduction (molecule-to-molecule vibration). Convection requires fluid movement; radiation requires electromagnetic wave emission (also occurs but conduction dominates the contact surface).

Q140. Odd one out — Select the element that does NOT belong with the others from a biological-chemistry standpoint:

1. Carbon (C)
2. Hydrogen (H)
3. Neon (Ne)
4. Oxygen (O)

Answer: C — Neon (Ne)

Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen are the three most abundant elements in biological molecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids). Neon is a noble gas that plays no role in biochemistry — the odd one out.

Q141. A clock shows 3:00. What angle do the hour and minute hands make? HPRCA-pat.

1. 60°
2. 90°
3. 120°
4. 45°

Answer: B — 90°

At 3:00, the hour hand is at the 3 (90° from 12) and the minute hand is at 12 (0°). The angle between them = 90°. Each hour mark = 30°; 3 marks × 30° = 90°.

Q142. The Panchayati Raj system in India (three-tier: Gram Panchayat → Panchayat Samiti → Zila Parishad) was given constitutional status under which amendment? HPRCA-pat.

1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976
2. 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992
3. 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002
4. 74th Constitutional Amendment, 1992

Answer: B — 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992

The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) via the 11th Schedule (29 subjects) and mandated 1/3 reservation for women. The 74th Amendment (1992) did the same for urban local bodies.

Q143. Which of the following sequences correctly traces the path of a nerve impulse in a reflex arc? HPRCA-pat.

1. Receptor → Effector → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron
2. Receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord (relay neuron) → Motor neuron → Effector
3. Effector → Motor neuron → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Receptor
4. Receptor → Motor neuron → Brain → Sensory neuron → Effector

Answer: B — Receptor → Sensory → Spinal cord → Motor → Effector

A spinal reflex arc: stimulus → receptor → afferent (sensory) neuron → integration centre (spinal cord interneuron) → efferent (motor) neuron → effector (muscle/gland). The signal bypasses the brain for speed.

Q144. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 guarantees free and compulsory education to children in the age group: HPRCA-pat.

1. 3–14 years
2. 6–14 years
3. 5–18 years
4. 6–18 years

Answer: B — 6–14 years

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (Article 21A) covers children aged 6–14 years (classes I–VIII). NEP 2020 proposes extending ECCE from age 3, but the statutory RTE provision remains 6–14 years.

Q145. If the total surface area of a cube is 96 cm², what is the volume of the cube? HPRCA-pat.

1. 16 cm³
2. 64 cm³
3. 216 cm³
4. 512 cm³

Answer: B — 64 cm³

Total surface area of cube = 6a² = 96 cm², so a² = 16, a = 4 cm. Volume = a³ = 4³ = 64 cm³.

Q146. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning (antonym) to ‘BENIGN’ in the context of a tumour: HPRCA-pat.

1. Malignant
2. Benevolent
3. Neutral
4. Dormant

Answer: A — Malignant

In medical/biological context, ‘benign’ (non-cancerous, not life-threatening) is the antonym of ‘malignant’ (cancerous, invasive). In general English, the antonym of benign (kind) is malevolent.

Q147. Choose the correctly spelled word from the options below:

1. Photosynthises
2. Photosinthesize
3. Photosynthesize
4. Photosinthasize

Answer: C — Photosynthesize

‘Photosynthesize’ (American English) or ‘photosynthesise’ (British English) is the correct verb form derived from photosynthesis. Options A, B, and D contain spelling errors.

Q148. Select the option that best fills the blank: “The teacher asked the students ______ their lab reports by Friday.”

1. submit
2. to submit
3. submitting
4. submitted

Answer: B — to submit

After verbs of instruction (‘asked’, ‘told’, ‘requested’) + object, the correct form is the full infinitive (‘to + base verb’). Pattern: Subject + asked + object + to-infinitive.

Q149. ‘‘ूर्जा प्रतापमानाम्’’ में समास है: HPRCA-pat.

1. तत्पुरुष समास
2. बहुव्रीहि समास
3. द्वंद्व समास
4. कर्मधारय समास

Answer: D — कर्मधारय समास

प्रतापमाना = भास्कर (समान था) + उर्जामान (सभापद पद)। उर्जा विशेषण है ४ अतः कर्मधारय समास।

Q150. Identify the figure of speech in the sentence: “The classroom was a jungle when the teacher was away.”

1. Simile
2. Metaphor
3. Personification
4. Alliteration

Answer: B — Metaphor

This is a metaphor — a direct comparison without ‘like’ or ‘as’. A simile would say ‘like a jungle’. Personification gives human qualities to non-human things; alliteration is repetition of initial consonant sounds.